How do you deal with this hand?
#1
Posted 2005-September-11, 13:50
I have ranked all possible strategies that I could think of from pessimistic to optimistic. What do you choose?
BTW you are playing online with a good player (but no star). You have almost no agreements but you seem to mesh well.
- hrothgar
#2
Posted 2005-September-11, 14:06
#3
Posted 2005-September-11, 14:18
Blackwood will rarely tell you what you need to know. If done before partner cues in ♠, you deserve to see the opps cash the ♠AK. If done later, knowing the number of Aces and the possession or lack of the ♥Q really doesn't help a great deal.
I bid 3♦ (which is forcing, and not an attempt to improve the partscore).
This should be interpreted as 'initially a game try, but may be a slam try: if the latter, then 3♦ shows the A'
So opener will bid 3♥ with a hand that is minimum and disappointing in ♦. That tells you that slam is unlikely, but not out of the question: maybe he has AQx xxxx Q10xx Axx: slam is still reasonable.
I would make one more try over 3♥, by bidding 4♣. This should be second round control (likely but not always a stiff) and allow him to bid 4♦ with at least one black Ace and the ♦K. Now 4♥ by me is non-forcing and allows him to picture my ♠ holding. He may be able to upgrade enough to drive to slam, but I would not go beyond 5♥ myself after this start.
If he likes his hand over 3♦, he should cue a black A on the way to game. Any bid by him beyond the signoff 3♥ shows an acceptance of the notional game try. He must cue an ace to cater to my possible slam try variant.
So 3♠ by him would be very nice to hear. I would now bid 4♣ and again over 4♦, bid 4♥. He knows I have mild slam interest with both minors controlled and hence almost certainly xx or xxx in ♠. he should be able to evaluate.
If he bids 4♣ over 3♦, I am going to be concerned about his ♠ holding. I am declarer, so Kxx is inadequate and it seems unlikely that he could hold the (probable) ♥Q, good ♦, ♣A and the ♠KQ or a stiff (where are the opps with 10 good ♠ between them?). So I am going to bid 4♥ over 4♣.
#4
Posted 2005-September-11, 14:35
13-3+2=12 tricks. Again must make some slam tries.
13=total tricks, minus 3 equals two shortest suits, 25-27=plus 2.
May I suggest if both LTC and FTL says try for slam, you go for it and pull out old blacky at some point if partner can cooperate with you. 3D for now.
Axx=Txxx=x=Axxxx gives us some play.
#5 Guest_Jlall_*
Posted 2005-September-11, 14:35
3H- I'll just bid 4H. Admittedly with Mike's example hand (presume he means 1 less diamond since it's 14 cards) I would accept a game try in diamonds. AQ, A and QTx in the game try suit is nice... and I am an animal
3S-I'll cue 4C then I'm done, partner can move with the right hand type.
3N-I'll just bid 4H. It sounds like he has some kind of maximum with soft values and not a great diamond holding.
4C-Yuck...I have to bid 4D now so he knows I was trying for slam (not game) but I don't like it, lol. Slam could be cold still though.
4D-Nice! I'll bid 5C so he knows spades are the issue.
4H-hmm...I guess I'd move with 5C.
#6
Posted 2005-September-11, 14:35
However, if I'm feeling lucky, I might try a semi-psychic 2♠. If pard bids 3♣ now, showing club values, I'll devaluate my hand and sign-off in 4♥. But if pard bypasses the club cue, I might trot out ol'black or continue cueing.
#7
Posted 2005-September-11, 15:08
Slam is possible opposite a perfect minimum, but seems unlikely...
If I were to move forward, I would bid 3♦ intending:
1. To rebid 4♥ over 3♥
2. To rebid 4♥ over 4♣
3. To cuebid 4♦ over 3♠
Note that I don't cuebid shortage in partner's first bid suit.
It might be reasonable to relax this rule opposite a standard 1♣ opening, however, I don't have that agreement with any of my partners
#8
Posted 2005-September-11, 15:11
whereagles, on Sep 11 2005, 10:35 PM, said:
hmmmm (hope my post isn't too long).
Roland
#9
Posted 2005-September-11, 15:15
So 3♦ for the time being, usually a game try. However, can be the beginning of a slam try.
Roland
#11
Posted 2005-September-11, 16:10
#12
Posted 2005-September-11, 20:12
If I am worried that 4C will not be recognized as a splinter, then I bid 4H and forget about slam. There are many more hands where 5H is hopeless (because of the 1C opening bid) than have a shot at 6H.
#13
Posted 2005-September-11, 20:57
SoTired, on Sep 11 2005, 09:12 PM, said:
If I am worried that 4C will not be recognized as a splinter, then I bid 4H and forget about slam. There are many more hands where 5H is hopeless (because of the 1C opening bid) than have a shot at 6H.
Great example hand..Please note the key point with this hand is opp have 9 spades and 15 hcp but did not overcall 1club or 1H....we will pay off to silent opp.
#14 Guest_Jlall_*
Posted 2005-September-11, 21:10
SoTired, on Sep 11 2005, 09:12 PM, said:
If you bid 3D partner with minimum HCP and xxx in diamonds will surely sign off in 3H. You can then avoid a bad slam.
As for this hand:
"Only the 4C splinter helps us find slam when partner holds AJ Qxxx KQx xxxx"
Partner will recognize the value of his diamond cards and we will be able to find slam. I think the key on your example hands was the diamond holding.
#15
Posted 2005-September-11, 21:32
My "simpleton" rule for replying to a splinter (Please experts, tell me what you think of it, because this is what I teach students):
Quote
2) If you still have your original bid, then you are slam positive. If you now fall below the minimum for your previous bid, then you are slam negative and should immediately sign-off.
Example (1C 1H 2H 4C):
Axx Qxxx Qx AQxx - 14 less 2 (♣Q) less 2 (1/2 ♣A) = 10 = Less than an opening bid, so sign-off in 4H.
AJx Qxxx KQ Qxxx = 14 less 2 (♣Q) = 12 = Still have opener, so bid 4D Last Train or just bid RKC since you have 1st or 2nd in all side suits.
#16
Posted 2005-September-11, 21:41
I won't post the result or partner's hand as I don't think that it hurt the discussion.
- hrothgar
#17
Posted 2005-September-11, 22:33
Kxx Qxxx KQ KJxx
After all this is a total max with four trumps and two honors in diamonds. The problem is, when partner accepts she will either bid 4♥, or perhaps cuebid 3♠. In either case it seems unlikely that I will get to play the hand in 4♥ (in the first case I'm committed to either keycard or cuebidding 5♣, in the second partner could easily have the spade ace instead of the king and slam is fine opposite Axx Qxxx KQ Kxxx of course). With the above hand, even 5♥ will be too high if the spade ace is offside.
The point is, if I splinter and partner signs off, I feel confident that it is right (partner has at least some wastage in clubs so we probably don't have slam). If I splinter and partner cues, I feel confident that at least 5♥ will be safe. Over a 3♦ try I have no such confidence.
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#18
Posted 2005-September-11, 22:44
For me, if partner bids 3S we still aren't committed to slam and I will cooperate at this point with 4C - this is a much different auction than one in which partner makes a 2/1 and I cue bid his suit - the 1C opening doesn't show anything more than xxx in the suit so the control may be critical to get partner to bid 4D with something like AQ, Qxxx, KQx, xxxx.
Winston
#19
Posted 2005-September-11, 23:05
#20
Posted 2005-September-11, 23:26
helene_t, on Sep 12 2005, 12:05 AM, said:
I think so, using the rule, "If a bid is forcing, then a jump in that suit is a splinter." (There are a few exceptions).
But 3C is not a new suit.
So is 3C forcing? I think it is, but some could argue that 3C could be made on an invitational hand with 4 hearts and 5 clubs. Opener with a min and only 3-card heart support is allowed to pass. That makes 4C the forcing version of that hand and not a splinter.