Walddk, on Jul 9 2005, 03:32 AM, said:
Dealer: | South | Vul: | None | Scoring: | IMP | | | |
You decide, somewhat aggressively, to open 1
♦ 1st in hand at IMPs, and the auction proceeds (no interference):
1
♦ - 1
♥
2
♦ - 2
♠ 1)
3
♥ - 3
♠ 2)
4
♥ - 5
♥
?
1) Can be 3 cards.
2) Cue bid.
What is going on? Why didn't responder use Roman Keycard (1430)? What do you do now and why? Pass, 6
♥ or perhaps 6
♦?
Roland
The deal is from the ongoing Nordic Championships in Denmark, and the Norwegian responder in the North seat bid 5
♥ on:
♠ A74
♥ KJ865
♦ A5
♣ AK2
After a huddle for at least 5 minutes. I can understand his reasoning. He feared (rightly) that opener had no key card (5
♦ playing 1430), and then there was no room to ask for
♥Q.
Was that too subtle or was it good thinking?
His brother passed 5
♥ after a long think. The winning bid would have been 6
♦, because West can't attack spades. At the other table the Swedes bid 6
♥ and made it. It wasn't all that easy for East to lead a spade from 10xxxx, holding J109 in clubs.
At that table, responder had also cue bid spades.
Roland