[prando]

What is the correct protocol in the event of an opponent making an erroneous bid which is below the previous current bid? e.g. Say North opening bid 1S, East Pass, South bids 1H (presumably by mistake)
What should West do ?
May / Must North point out his partner’s error ?
How is it rectified?
I hope that makes sense !
Thanks
Paul

[Douglas43]

prando, on 2021-December-11, 01:14, said:

What is the correct protocol in the event of an opponent making an erroneous bid which is below the previous current bid? e.g. Say North opening bid 1S, East Pass, South bids 1H (presumably by mistake)
What should West do ?
May / Must North point out his partner's error ?
How is it rectified?
I hope that makes sense !
Thanks
Paul

Oh gosh, the rule on insufficient bids (law 27) is pretty complicated. Happily the EBU publishes some great free online resources on its website. One of them is a flow chart of common problems at the table. I can't recommend these strongly enough, such an improvement on trying to interpret the rule from scratch: https://www.ebu.co.u...flow-charts.pdf

If it's a club night or a competition, I'd call the Tournament Director straight away to help clear it up. Don't try to fix it on your own. Anyone can do it during the auction

The two simplest and most common outcomes, are for West to accept the bid and 1♥ stands, or for West to not accept it and South to make it good by bidding 2♥. If you are just playing a social game at the kitchen table, you might stick to those?

[prando]

Thanks for the prompt reply Douglas.
It was indeed social/kitchen bridge so no issues !
I have printed off page 1 of the flow chart. Thanks
Paul

[pescetom]

Accepting the insufficient bid is a simple outcome but not a common one, in my experience. If you want to keep things simple I would suggest refusing always, you will be in numerous company. LHO still has this right after your own insufficient bid, of course.

[thepossum]

prando, on 2021-December-11, 01:14, said:

What is the correct protocol in the event of an opponent making an erroneous bid which is below the previous current bid? e.g. Say North opening bid 1S, East Pass, South bids 1H (presumably by mistake)
What should West do ?
May / Must North point out his partner’s error ?
How is it rectified?
I hope that makes sense !
Thanks
Paul

To me the common sense solution is to point it out and have the bid increased to 2. I have no idea really. Bit sad if it was the suit that was incorrect

[apollo1201]

pescetom, on 2021-December-11, 11:00, said:

Accepting the insufficient bid is a simple outcome but not a common one, in my experience. If you want to keep things simple I would suggest refusing always, you will be in numerous company. LHO still has this right after your own insufficient bid, of course.

Happened to me once actually.

Partner opened 1S and opp overcall 1 something (don’t remember what exactly).

I promptly accepted with a disgusting 4333 with just Kxx S and bid 1S. At least partner knew I had a very bad hand (not worth a 2S call) with just one important feature that needed to be shown asap and cheaply, so probably 3-cds to a big honor.

Then, she was able to push them 1 level higher in their trump fit and cash S AK on the lead before they disappeared on dummy’s running side suit.

[Douglas43]

Apollo, good plan, I have a partnership agreement to that effect

[pescetom]

Douglas43, on 2021-December-12, 15:16, said:

Apollo, good plan, I have a partnership agreement to that effect

It sounds sensible if the partnership has agreed on it and the RA allows it.
An RA may disallow prior agreement by a partnership to vary its understandings following an irregularity committed by the opponents (ours does) in which case TD might rule this is an illegal agreement.

[apollo1201]

pescetom, on 2021-December-13, 10:19, said:

It sounds sensible if the partnership has agreed on it and the RA allows it.
An RA may disallow prior agreement by a partnership to vary its understandings following an irregularity committed by the opponents (ours does) in which case TD might rule this is an illegal agreement.

Probably makes sense although hard to prove I guess

It was an inspiration of the moment thing, tbh, I was rather récent and the TD explained well all options. To the whole table who had never faced this before (it was a tiered competition, no screen, we were in the lowest tier). We all laughed after my creative bid (I remember saying so I can really bid 1S??? in a suspicious tone).

[pescetom]

It makes little sense to me, for the reasons you hint at:
- it only restrains more ethical partnerships, others will just do it anyway and conceal the agreement
- in absence of agreements this situation is likely to generate UI.

But unfortunately such prohibition is a legal option for RAs and several do choose it, including mine. As always, one needs to know the national regulations.

[morecharac]

I'm too rusty at directing to give a perfect answer, so I won't.

Your question reminded me a time where p opened 1♥, my RHO overcalled 1♦, which I accepted so that I could show my 3-card support despite having 0 HCP. Nobody found it as funny as I did.