I am considering switching to a short-club (unbalanced diamond) approach and ultimately T-Walsh, as described in http://bridge.mgoetze.net/21twalsh.pdf (i.e. transfer completion = 11-13 bal <4M or 11-14 5♣3M unbal). Consider the auction 1♣-1♥!; 1♠!-... It seems easy enough to keep playing XYZ here; this is also what mgoetze's writeup suggests. But there are some subtleties...
(1) Over 2♣ (nominally a puppet to 2♦), it seems reasonable to play e.g. the relay breaks 2♥=3415 max, 2♠=3xx5 max... or something else?
(2a) Over 2♦, should opener tend to reveal a 5-card minor immediately if he doesn't have 4♥ or 3♠? It would seem that differentiating between e.g. 2353 and 2335 may be useful for slamming, and you're not really revealing more than standard bidders who will have opened either 1♣ or 1♦ (specifically, 3♣ doesn't reveal more as the standard 1♣-1♠; 1N-2♦!; 2N auction should be exactly 2335 (or possibly 2245), 3♦ would distinguish between 5=3 and 4=4 in the minors which standard bidders don't reveal)... or would you rather conceal as much as possible? (2b) Also, I guess the 5♣3M unbal hands can be shown with 3-level jumps over 2♦?
(3) The 2N->3♣ 5431 sequences mostly make sense when opener's longer minor is known; in a short-club approach, there isn't really a reason for responder to have a sequence to show e.g. 4135 but no way to show 4153. Should we keep them as is, or e.g. show 4315/4135/4351/4153, i.e. put all GF hands with 5♠ into 2♦ and be able to show club and diamond based hands equally well?
Note that (2a) and (3) (mostly) apply in any short-club approach, independently of whether one plays T-Walsh or not.
Any suggestions are appreciated and welcome
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