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2C-2H double negative follow-ups

Poll: 2C-2H double negative follow-ups (11 member(s) have cast votes)

How forcing is opener's 1st rebid (2S, 3m, 3H)?

  1. They're all GF (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  2. Some are GF, some are just F (1 votes [9.09%])

    Percentage of vote: 9.09%

  3. They're all F (8 votes [72.73%])

    Percentage of vote: 72.73%

  4. Some are NF, some are F (2 votes [18.18%])

    Percentage of vote: 18.18%

  5. They're all NF (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

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#1 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2019-November-19, 04:26

Assuming you play
2 - 2 as 0-4, double negative artificial, how do you play opener's 2/3/3/3 rebids?

Please don't say "it depends on what you open 2 with" -- obviously what you open 2 with depends on the agreement here as well so we'd start an infinite loop of back-questions.

(edit: FWIW I just lazily chose the middle ground - responder promises 1 more bid, whatever opener does, except for the 22-24 2NT. I'm not sure this is the best way, hence the poll.)
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#2 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2019-November-19, 04:57

After 2 we can still stop in 3, and maybe we can also stop in 4m in some auctions although I think I prefer to play 4m as always forcing.
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#3 User is offline   FelicityR 

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Posted 2019-November-19, 05:53

 gwnn, on 2019-November-19, 04:26, said:

Please don't say "it depends on what you open 2 with" -- obviously what you open 2 with depends on the agreement here as well so we'd start an infinite loop of back-questions.


There shouldn't be any discussion on what anyone opens 2 with as Standard American defines it as a "trick [or so] short of game", and that's why 2 is not seen as unconditionally game forcing in SAYC, with the option of stopping in 3M or 4m.

Taking away opener's rebid of 2 by using a 2 artificial double negative bid by responder does take away using the Kokish convention - which is an asset to 2 opening bidding, I feel. However, a 2 negative does allow opener and responder more room to explore hands where 5+ HCPs opposite a 2 opener will result in a slam being bid.

I think that it is should be easy enough for opener to define their own hand after a 2 negative, through either the Losing Trick Count or as a trick taking hand, and to bid accordingly on the second round. With a orientated hand with 8 and 1/2 (an absolute minimum) or 9 tricks I would bid 3. With 9 and 1/2 tricks I would gamble on 4.

The only problem, I see, using the 2 negative is where you have a two suited hand with s and another suit. You are then limited on space describing your hand, and the second suit could be lost in the bidding.
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#4 User is offline   fromageGB 

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Posted 2019-November-19, 07:30

 FelicityR, on 2019-November-19, 05:53, said:

... using the 2 negative is where you have a two suited hand with s and another suit...

Hearts and a minor. With both majors you rebid 2(forcing) followed by 3(non-forcing).
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#5 User is offline   pescetom 

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Posted 2019-November-19, 08:02

 fromageGB, on 2019-November-19, 07:30, said:

Hearts and a minor. With both majors you rebid 2(forcing) followed by 3(non-forcing).

Or hearts longer than spades.

But my biggest reserve about 2 red flag would be the loss of jump bid 3 when holding a game force plus single suiter.
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#6 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2019-November-22, 16:45

 FelicityR, on 2019-November-19, 05:53, said:

There shouldn't be any discussion on what anyone opens 2 with as Standard American defines it as a "trick [or so] short of game"…

What if they're not playing Standard American?
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