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Is the stop card of a non-call UI?

#1 User is offline   lamford 

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Posted 2019-July-15, 05:51


IMPs, lead 4, result 4-1

East was actually the dealer here, but the software does not allow a COOT. East started to use a stop card, intending to open 2S, but South passed out of turn before East could call. The TD ruled it was a POOT and West decided to accept it and bid 1NT. East showed an invite with 5+ spades, usually six, and West accepted. Even with the king and queen of hearts wasted it was on the spade finesse, but that failed and declarer was one off. The two questions I have are:

a) Is the use of the stop card by East, prior to the pass out of turn, UI or AI to West, a member of the non-offenders, and if UI does she have to carefully avoiding using that UI in order to decide whether to accept the pass out of turn?

b) During the auction, West knows that East must have been intending to open a weak Two Spades, but she also knows that from the authorised auction. What are her LAs, and that depends of course on whether the cancelled stop card is UI?

And board 34 from the LMBA teams, not from a North London club. No SB or Chch present!
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#2 User is offline   pescetom 

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Posted 2019-July-15, 06:52

I may be wrong but I can't see which part of law would make the Stop UI to West. Admittedly I can't see where it would be clearly categorised as AI either. But if information arising from a withdrawn call is authorised to the non-offending side, then it seems logical that information arising from a legal call interrupted by a call out of turn should be authorised also.

Whatever the orientation of Director, I think he has a duty to inform West of it before she decides whether to accept the POOT or not.
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#3 User is offline   lamford 

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Posted 2019-July-15, 07:14

View Postpescetom, on 2019-July-15, 06:52, said:

I may be wrong but I can't see which part of law would make the Stop UI to West. Admittedly I can't see where it would be clearly categorised as AI either. But if information arising from a withdrawn call is authorised to the non-offending side, then it seems logical that information arising from a legal call interrupted by a call out of turn should be authorised also.

Whatever the orientation of Director, I think he has a duty to inform West of it before she decides whether to accept the POOT or not.

The TD did state that he thought the stop card was UI to West, but we did not challenge that. FrancesHinden, when consulted, also thought it was probably UI, but I think it is probably AI. ["arising from the legal procedures authorized in these laws and in regulations", although it does say, "see BI" which includes extraneous information so both arguments have validity']. The fact that a withdrawn call is authorised for the non-offenders is the silver bullet for me.
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#4 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2019-July-15, 07:47

View Postlamford, on 2019-July-15, 07:14, said:

The fact that a withdrawn call is authorised for the non-offenders is the silver bullet for me.


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#5 User is offline   pran 

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Posted 2019-July-15, 07:51

Law 16A1c says:

A player may use information in the auction or play if:
.....
{c} it is information specified in any law or regulation to be authorized or, when not otherwise specified, arising from the legal procedures authorized in these laws and in regulations (but see B1 following);

STOP is a legal remark indicating that the player is about to make a call with certain attributes. This remark is not part of the following call.
So West is in no way restricted during his auction or play from the uncompleted STOP from East.

(I am fully aware of the restrictions in Law 16B1 but do not see how South's call out of turn can make these restrictions relevant.
The alternative is to rule that "STOP" is indeed part of the following call in which case Law 33 shall apply as below.)

Had East come as far as to (at least partially) making his call then the applicable Law would have been Law 33 Simultaneous calls and South's PASS would not have been a call out of turn but a call subsequent to East's opening call when completed.
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#6 User is offline   sanst 

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Posted 2019-July-16, 01:32

Pran is right: it’s a Law 33 case. The stop isn’t a call as such, but part of the call. If not, it would be extraneous information, but, since it’s legal procedure, it’s part of the game and therefore not extraneous. That makes it AI.
The TD was wrong here, it wasn’t a POOT, but a subsequent call. Anyway, it probably didn’t make any difference in this case. Maybe W had not bid game, but 3, which makes. No way of telling now.
This problem is due to the unregulated position of the stop card. It’s not in the Laws, though in the Dutch lawbook there’s an appendix about bidding boxes which makes it part of the Laws over here, but it’s nowadays a standard part of the game. Does anyone know whether the WBFLC has published anything about it?
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#7 User is offline   pescetom 

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Posted 2019-July-16, 06:32

View Postpran, on 2019-July-15, 07:51, said:

...
STOP is a legal remark indicating that the player is about to make a call with certain attributes. This remark is not part of the following call.
So West is in no way restricted during his auction or play from the uncompleted STOP from East.

(I am fully aware of the restrictions in Law 16B1 but do not see how South's call out of turn can make these restrictions relevant.
The alternative is to rule that "STOP" is indeed part of the following call in which case Law 33 shall apply as below.)

Had East come as far as to (at least partially) making his call then the applicable Law would have been Law 33 Simultaneous calls and South's PASS would not have been a call out of turn but a call subsequent to East's opening call when completed.



View Postsanst, on 2019-July-16, 01:32, said:

Pran is right: it’s a Law 33 case. The stop isn’t a call as such, but part of the call. If not, it would be extraneous information, but, since it’s legal procedure, it’s part of the game and therefore not extraneous. That makes it AI.
The TD was wrong here, it wasn’t a POOT, but a subsequent call.


I don't think Pran is saying it was a Law 33 case - he says that would be an alternative to how he sees - and he doesn't seem to accept that the Stop is part of the call.

I agree with you that the Stop is effectively part of the call, but I don't agree with your conclusion that this becomes a Law 33 case. Law 33 talks about a call "made simultaneously" - I take that as meaning that it is difficult or impossible to establish which call appeared first. That is not the case if East places pass on the table when North has only shown the Stop card, or even for that matter when North has extracted cards from the bidding box but not yet shown his call.
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#8 User is offline   pran 

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Posted 2019-July-16, 08:04

View Postpescetom, on 2019-July-16, 06:32, said:

I don't think Pran is saying it was a Law 33 case - he says that would be an alternative to how he sees - and he doesn't seem to accept that the Stop is part of the call.

I agree with you that the Stop is effectively part of the call, but I don't agree with your conclusion that this becomes a Law 33 case. Law 33 talks about a call "made simultaneously" - I take that as meaning that it is difficult or impossible to establish which call appeared first. That is not the case if East places pass on the table when North has only shown the Stop card, or even for that matter when North has extracted cards from the bidding box but not yet shown his call.

The laws consider two different actions to be "simultaneous" if they overlap in time so that neither is definitely subsequent to the other.

In our case with East dealer:
If East says (for instance) "one" and South (interrupting) says something that can be the first syllable of a call then South legally makes a call simultaneously with East.

If East pulls a card from the bid box and South at the same time pulls a card from his bid box then the two calls are legally made simultaneously regardless of which of them effectively first becomes visible to the table.

so If we consider STOP as part of an upcoming call (which I don't) then we have a clear Law 33 case, otherwise we just have a legal remark informing LHO (and the table) that the player is about to make a call that will require LHO to hold his own upcoming call for about ten seconds.
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#9 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2019-July-16, 08:39

View Postpran, on 2019-July-16, 08:04, said:

If East pulls a card from the bid box and South at the same time pulls a card from his bid box then the two calls are legally made simultaneously regardless of which of them effectively first becomes visible to the table.

Not in the ACBL, where a call is not made until the bidding card(s) is/are "touching or nearly touching the table, or placed in a position as to indicate a call has been made".

That said, I agree with your interpretation of "stop out of turn".
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#10 User is offline   barmar 

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Posted 2019-July-16, 09:15

This situation can't occur in ACBL, since we got rid of the Stop card. So ACBL's bidding box regulations are not really relevant.

#11 User is offline   pescetom 

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Posted 2019-July-16, 09:26

View Postbarmar, on 2019-July-16, 09:15, said:

This situation can't occur in ACBL, since we got rid of the Stop card. So ACBL's bidding box regulations are not really relevant.


But they are relevant in application to my test case of East placing the Pass card on the table while North (at his turn to play and intending to make a non-jump call) has selected but not faced the bidding cards. I would not apply Law 33 in this case, as North has not yet disclosed his call. I see the situation where North has only shown the Stop card as analogous.
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#12 User is offline   axman 

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Posted 2019-July-16, 09:40

View Postpescetom, on 2019-July-16, 06:32, said:

I don't think Pran is saying it was a Law 33 case - he says that would be an alternative to how he sees - and he doesn't seem to accept that the Stop is part of the call.

I agree with you that the Stop is effectively part of the call, but I don't agree with your conclusion that this becomes a Law 33 case. Law 33 talks about a call "made simultaneously" - I take that as meaning that it is difficult or impossible to establish which call appeared first. That is not the case if East places pass on the table when North has only shown the Stop card, or even for that matter when North has extracted cards from the bidding box but not yet shown his call.

I would think that if anything, a skip bid warning has an effect similar to the effect of summoning the TD: take no action until...

and...a consequence of taking action prior to until...
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#13 User is offline   pescetom 

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Posted 2019-July-16, 09:45

View Postpran, on 2019-July-16, 08:04, said:

If East pulls a card from the bid box and South at the same time pulls a card from his bid box then the two calls are legally made simultaneously regardless of which of them effectively first becomes visible to the table.


Our RA regulations 18.1 state that when Bidding Boxes are in use then a call is considered made when the card is placed on the table, or when the player has announced verbally his intended call.
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#14 User is offline   pran 

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Posted 2019-July-16, 10:53

View Postblackshoe, on 2019-July-16, 08:39, said:

Not in the ACBL, where a call is not made until the bidding card(s) is/are "touching or nearly touching the table, or placed in a position as to indicate a call has been made".

That said, I agree with your interpretation of "stop out of turn".

Please - how will you rule in the following cases (no "STOP" involved). And these are not hypothetical cases, they have actually happened:

A slow player takes a card from the bid box and uses a few seconds (with no hesitation as such) to place that card face up on the table.

During this process a second player takes a card from his bid box and places that card face up on the table.

(It is clear that the second player made and completed his action entirely during the interval within which the slow player carried out his action.)

There are three alternatives:
1: The player in turn to call was the slow player.
2: The player in turn to call was the second player.
3: The player in turn to call was neither of them.
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#15 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2019-July-16, 14:18

View Postpran, on 2019-July-16, 10:53, said:

Please - how will you rule in the following cases (no "STOP" involved). And these are not hypothetical cases, they have actually happened:

A slow player takes a card from the bid box and uses a few seconds (with no hesitation as such) to place that card face up on the table.

During this process a second player takes a card from his bid box and places that card face up on the table.

(It is clear that the second player made and completed his action entirely during the interval within which the slow player carried out his action.)

There are three alternatives:
1: The player in turn to call was the slow player.
2: The player in turn to call was the second player.
3: The player in turn to call was neither of them.

Assuming that your parenthetical means that the second player called before the "slow" one:

1. Call out of turn by the second player. I suppose possibly "simultaneous call". The latter is kinder to the second player, and for that reason many would so rule, even if technically that ruling is wrong.
2. Depends. Was the slow player the "second" player's LHO or his RHO? Or his partner?
3. If they have both called, they have both called out of turn. Second player's call might be "simultaneous".
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#16 User is offline   sanst 

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Posted 2019-July-16, 14:44

View Postpescetom, on 2019-July-16, 09:45, said:

Our RA regulations 18.1 state that when Bidding Boxes are in use then a call is considered made when the card is placed on the table, or when the player has announced verbally his intended call.

The Dutch regulation says: “A call is considered to have been made when the bidding card(s) are taken out of the bidding box with the apparent intent to make a call herewith.” Note the plural between brackets. The only time you make a (legal) call with two cards is when you put the stop card on the table. This is one of the reason that Inthink that the stop card is part of the call.
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#17 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2019-July-16, 17:59

View Postsanst, on 2019-July-16, 14:44, said:

The Dutch regulation says: “A call is considered to have been made when the bidding card(s) are taken out of the bidding box with the apparent intent to make a call herewith.” Note the plural between brackets. The only time you make a (legal) call with two cards is when you put the stop card on the table. This is one of the reason that Inthink that the stop card is part of the call.


This is not correct. When any bid other than 1 is bid, multiple cards are taken out of the bidding box. And the Stop card is taken out before the bidding cards.

The Stop card is not part of a call in the EBU, and I should consult my local regulations carefully instead of relying on spurious logic.
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#18 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2019-July-16, 18:01

View Postbarmar, on 2019-July-16, 09:15, said:

This situation can't occur in ACBL, since we got rid of the Stop card. So ACBL's bidding box regulations are not really relevant.


But i assume that the ACBL have reverted to a verbal warning, so there is some relevance.
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#19 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2019-July-16, 19:15

You assume incorrectly. There is no skip bid warning, verbal or otherwise.
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#20 User is offline   pran 

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Posted 2019-July-17, 01:07

View Postpran, on 2019-July-16, 10:53, said:

Please - how will you rule in the following cases (no "STOP" involved). And these are not hypothetical cases, they have actually happened:

A slow player takes a card from the bid box and uses a few seconds (with no hesitation as such) to place that card face up on the table.

During this process a second player takes a card from his bid box and places that card face up on the table.

(It is clear that the second player made and completed his action entirely during the interval within which the slow player carried out his action.)

There are three alternatives:
1: The player in turn to call was the slow player.
2: The player in turn to call was the second player.
3: The player in turn to call was neither of them.



View Postblackshoe, on 2019-July-16, 14:18, said:

Assuming that your parenthetical means that the second player called before the "slow" one:

1. Call out of turn by the second player. I suppose possibly "simultaneous call". The latter is kinder to the second player, and for that reason many would so rule, even if technically that ruling is wrong.
2. Depends. Was the slow player the "second" player's LHO or his RHO? Or his partner?
3. If they have both called, they have both called out of turn. Second player's call might be "simultaneous".


To make it completely clear - the sequence of events are (in all three alternatives):
1: The slow player takes a card from his bid box
2: The second player takes a card from his bid box
3: The second player faces his bid card
4: The slow player faces his bid card.

There is no hesitation by the slow player, he just is slower than the second player.

Since your ruling depends on three possibilities in case 2 I should like to know the answers in all three alternatives.
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