xyz - opener's continuations after invite
#1
Posted 2019-March-25, 17:24
1♦ - 1♥
1N - 2♣
2♦ - 2♥
1♦ - 1♥
1♠ - 2♣
2♦ - 2♥
responder is showing an invitational hand with 5+ hearts.
What does 2N by opener mean? Does it ever make sense to "sign off in 2NT"? Does it ever make sense to "invite an invite"?
What does 3♥ by opener mean? Equally, does this make sense as inviting? Or, while not applicable in the first sequence, is it forcing with the hope of slam in the latter?
#2
Posted 2019-March-25, 23:29
3♥should be 14 with good diamonds and something like Kx or Ax in hearts to make much sense- the bidding made the hand better in value/fit.
Definitely an excellent and somewhat open question!
#3
Posted 2019-March-26, 02:56
After 1N,3♥ is Pick a game.
Bear in mind that responder had the opportunity to bid 2♦ GF and artificial and opener has the option to bypass 2♦ if he is not prepared for responder to pass
If opener has 4♠ he should first bid 1N or 2N if he is balanced and in range a spade fit can still be found.
#4
Posted 2019-March-26, 04:43
nekthen, on 2019-March-26, 02:56, said:
1♠ isn't unlimited, it shows 11-17 while 1NT shows (11) 12-14. Whether or not 1♠ is necessarily unbalanced, that is a matter of partnership agreement. An advantage of playing it as both balanced and unbalanced is that you won't end up in the wrong partscore if responder isn't inv or GF.
To answer smerriman's questions:
What does 2N by opener mean? 2N shows a minimum with 2♥.
What does 3♥ by opener mean? A balanced slam try is unlikely with max 17 opposite 10-11 (an unbalanced opener could splinter with shortage). On the other hand, I really dislike bouncing back the invite with 3♥ unless you want to give your opponents every license to double you in 4♥. The latter option (3♥ as inv) is probably most easy to remember, it avoids disasters and therefore it is preferable.
#5
Posted 2019-March-26, 07:20
In the 2 sequences above, I think sign-off by opener after 2♥ is PASS.
2nt by opener is constructive and says MAX of 12-14. Responder who has stretched (me?) can then pass or rebid 3♥ if he has 6, suit quality not good enough for a jump to 3♥ after the 2♣ relay. Lets say:
Kx
A108xxx
QJx
xx
Compared to
Kx
AQJxxx
Jxx
xx
You can read my extensive article on Internet (XYZ), article that was published on BBO some years ago. However, extensive doesnt mean comprehensive, as bridge players can add or modify the structure to their taste.
Think about this sequence :
1x 1y
1nt 4nt quantitative
How can opener know if it is 18 or 19?
First of all, responder with 18 and NO FIT, KNOWING opener has MAX 14, should bid only 3nt.
That leaves us with 19. Bidding 4nt seems ok, but why not keep some safety in the sequence? Your partner (not you obviously) may have opened with a horrible 12. Why not use this:
1x 1y
1nt 2♣ relay
2♦ forced 3nt = P, I have 19 balanced
Why play 4nt when you can play 3?
This reminds me of stubborn players who refuse to play Drury. Where is the logic in preferring to play 3♠ instead of 2♠ ??? ☺
With 20 balanced, responder just jumps to 4nt after 1nt by opener.
Have fun, xyz is the most fun thing to play.
Fluff
#6
Posted 2019-March-26, 08:07
#7
Posted 2019-March-26, 08:50
msjennifer, on 2019-March-26, 08:07, said:
Hi there
In xyz, 2♣ is Forcing to 2♦. Opener has no choice.
Take care
#8
Posted 2019-March-26, 09:55
fluff, on 2019-March-26, 08:50, said:
In xyz, 2♣ is Forcing to 2♦. Opener has no choice.
Take care
Sir, thanks a lot for the reminder.I frankly do not know what XYZ is neither am I interested in finding what it is .If and IF only the OP desires to know how the auction will progress as per XYZ then I express my inability.I only expressed what WE PLAY.I withdraw my explanation hereby.Just by the way till now I believed that after opener has limited his by bidding just 1NT to a maximum of 14 HCP then any a reverse bid or a jump bid in a new suit by responder alone is a forcing bid.Hence 1D-1H-1NT-2C is non forcing ,if XYZ says it is a forcing bid and opener can not pass it is hard for us to swallow. However 1D-1H-1S-2C either known as (as per my little knowledge ) the new minor bid or the 4th suit forcing bid or a Checkback as opener as I said can have upto 16-17(BAD) HCP.I sincerely hope that I have made myself clear enough the way WE play it with the assurance that there was no hint of intention that others follow it.THANK YOU AGAIN.
#9
Posted 2019-March-26, 11:51
#10
Posted 2019-March-26, 14:41
In the second sequence, I am not sure why one would want to play 2C as XYZ rather than 4SF.
ahydra
#11
Posted 2019-March-26, 15:30
HardVector, on 2019-March-26, 11:51, said:
XYZ can be played after 3 suit bids, or 2 suit bids and 1NT rebid by opener.
Calling it 2-way Stayman is obscure. XYZ covers opener rebidding 1NT or 1 of a major. 2♣ is a relay to 2♦ with an invitational hand (or passing 2♦ with a weak hand with diamonds) and 2♦ is an artificial game force.
#13
Posted 2019-March-27, 06:34
#14
Posted 2019-March-27, 11:58
fluff, on 2019-March-27, 06:34, said:
And even if Ms Jennifer has no intention of using the convention herself, wouldn't be useful to understand the opponent's auction when they are playing XYZ?
#15
Posted 2019-March-28, 12:13
I would play both 2N and 3H as accepting the invite, but uncertainty about the strain - e.g. 3♥ says "I have three hearts but the type of hand that might play better in 3N opposite 5332".
#16
Posted 2019-March-28, 23:48
in the second one, 2S = 4153, wants to scramble (e.g. play 2NT)