WEST EAST
♠KQ64 *** ♠A7
♥K875 *** ♥A3
♦Q6 *** ♦AKJT97
♣A76 *** ♣983
1C - 2D**
2NT (balanced 12-14) - 6NT
Pass
** I was called to the table as Director after responder East 2♦ and just before South was about to pass. East (stupidly) said to me and the rest of the table she thought partner had opened 1♠ and wanted to know if she could change her bid.
1. I ruled the 2♦ bid stands. (Obviously, if she had lied and told me it was a mechanical error and that she intended to bid 1♦, she would have gotten away with it.)
2. I informed opener the unauthorized information cannot be used and that on a close decision, he must choose the call that is least advantageous to his side.
3. I informed opener that at this point, if 2♦ is alertable in the auction 1♣-Pass-2♦, he needs to alert and if asked, to explain the systemic meaning of the 2♦ bid. (That bid by responder showed an artificial game forcing club raise.)
An easy 12 tricks were made in 6NT and I let the result stand because it was clear that the player learned herself the opening bid was 1♣ instead of 1♠ so she isn't required to bid her hand as if the opening bid was 1♠.
I know I have seen EBU documents describing a player cannot just jump to slam or game to avoid a misinformation situation to prevent a disaster. (Can someone tell me the two word phrase to describe that principle? I couldn't find it after numerous internet searches.) I decided that was not the case - but some might think with the type of hand responder held that a 4♣ Gerber bid might appropriate, but responder knows 4♣ might be misinterpreted after a club game forcing raise (although it shouldn't be).
Is the fact opener is potentially constrained due to UI responder caused allowed to be used by the responder?