[Curls77]

Hi all. Would you please help me clear some misunderstandings I had with a new pard, as we disagreed on which bids are forcing.

we are red, against white. IMPs. West deals and passes.
(P) 1D (1H) 1S
(P) 2D (P) 3C
Is 3C forcing? What are other options South has there with:
AQJTxxxx J Q Axx?

Another situation:
P (1H) X (P)
2D (P) 2S (P)
Is this 2S bid, as following the original double forcing? Even tho partner is passed hand?
South this time had:
KQTxxx Ax AJxx A

Thanks ! : )

[apollo1201]

Hi Curls. I'd say for 1 that it is forcing (even GF) as w/o the overcall. 5+ spades and semi-natural clubs at least. That said, with such an extreme distribution, you could cue before repeating your S.

For 2, it is not forcing but highly encouraging, your partner having shown 0-8, it shows 18-20 kindof. The hand is a good example (with a little more, given the 6th spade, you could even jump to 3S). If you want to force with stronger hands, you have to cue after the X.

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

3C in the first auction is forcing, ..., you always have the cue
available to create a gf, but cue bid auction get murky quite fast
I would like to write, bew suits on the 3 level are gf, but certain
3rd suit forcing auctions, are exceptions.
With the given hand, I prefer 4S, slam may be on, but partner is
limited, and you may need special cards.

2S in the second auction is non forcing, and showes appox. the hand
you gave.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[MrAce]

 Curls77, on 2017-March-25, 09:57, said:

Hi all. Would you please help me clear some misunderstandings I had with a new pard, as we disagreed on which bids are forcing.

we are red, against white. IMPs. West deals and passes.
(P) 1D (1H) 1S
(P) 2D (P) 3C
Is 3C forcing? What are other options South has there with:
AQJTxxxx J Q Axx?

Another situation:
P (1H) X (P)
2D (P) 2S (P)
Is this 2S bid, as following the original double forcing? Even tho partner is passed hand?
South this time had:
KQTxxx Ax AJxx A

Thanks ! : )

Hi there!

1-3♣ in first auction is forcing, But he should have cue bid instead of 3♣. Clubs should be natural when you bid them in this auction. But yes it is forcing.

2-Double followed by 2♠ shows a good hand but it is non forcing in this auction. It basically shows stronger hand than your maximum direct spade overcall range. I would also double and bid ♠ with the hand you gave. It is non forcing though and why would I want to force my pd with only 18 hcp anyway? He is allowed to hold 0-1-2-3-4-5-6 hcps.

[mycroft]

1) With very few exceptions (usually after NT rebids), a non-jump new suit by responder is forcing. It's possible to play "with no exceptions" - I believe I do in my normal system (but we play a bunch of conventions in the "very few" cases that aren't necessarily something players want to pile on).

Almost never do we want to play in a partscore in the third suit; many many times (especially in a standard system, where many of opener's rebids are still very wide-ranging), responder wants to get partner to bid again.

It's frequently useful to use these forcing bids to convert the invitational raise into a game-forcing one (on the next round, of course). Why would we not do it last round? Because you could have passed it. Therefore, you're not supposed to pass this!

"Easy."

[Curls77]

Thanks everyone a lot : )

Just theoretically, if 2nd auction was different and 2D was a "free" bid, ie:
P (1C) X (1H)
2D (P) 2S (P)
would now 2S be forcing?

Double thanks !

[MrAce]

 Curls77, on 2017-March-26, 11:13, said:

Thanks everyone a lot : )

Just theoretically, if 2nd auction was different and 2D was a "free" bid, ie:
P (1C) X (1H)
2D (P) 2S (P)
would now 2S be forcing?

Double thanks !

This is a very good question. Depends on your standards about "free bids" to me bidding 2♦ freely promises nothing much but shape. basically I would bid 2 dia with xx x Qxxxxx Jxxx. In this style new suit by doubler is not forcing. Still a very good hand but non forcing. But if your standard of free bids are higher, I can understand to make it forcing.

NOTE: Some people play free bids as "I would make a jump response had this not been a free bid" I am not one of them. To me free bid promises something but not as much as jumping.

[rmnka447]

 Curls77, on 2017-March-26, 11:13, said:

Thanks everyone a lot : )

Just theoretically, if 2nd auction was different and 2D was a "free" bid, ie:
P (1C) X (1H)
2D (P) 2S (P)
would now 2S be forcing?

Double thanks !

When a take out double is made, so far as advancer (doubler's partner) knows, the double is based on support for the unbid suits. If the next player (responder) passes, then advancer is forced to bid with even 0 points. But if responder makes a bid, advancer is under no need to bid. So when advancer makes a free bid, it shows something that he/she wants to bid. It may not be much, but it does deny a completely terrible holding. In the auction you're asking about, if advancer held say just D KQxxx knowing there had to be at least an 8 card fit, wouldn't he/she want tell doubler about them? So, essentially the only hands being eliminated when advancer takes a free bid are the bad hands where only a "forced bid" would be made.

The 2 S bid retains the same meaning it would have had responder passed. It shows a hand too strong for a direct overcall of the opening bid. It is not forcing.