StevenG, on 2016-October-03, 08:59, said:
I think we need to know what North was thinking. Why did he pass his opening bid? Maybe he'd "lost" an Ace or just miscounted, and was still thinking he had a 9-count when it came back to him. Who knows?
The only basis for an adjustment that I can see is that he might have fielded a misbid. And yet, I don't see any clear alternative to pass, whether North is fielding or not. 4♠ is out of the question after West's bid. 4♦, perhaps? It wouldn't appeal to me, whereas defending 3♠ with declarer in a presumed 5-0 fit looks much more tempting.
The only way to deal with repeated Ghestem (or similar) forgets is to log them. Once there is evidence that it can be bid as per convention card or as a single-suiter, then you can (in the EBU) rule illegal agreement. But one hand, by itself, proves nothing.
The only basis for an adjustment that I can see is that he might have fielded a misbid. And yet, I don't see any clear alternative to pass, whether North is fielding or not. 4♠ is out of the question after West's bid. 4♦, perhaps? It wouldn't appeal to me, whereas defending 3♠ with declarer in a presumed 5-0 fit looks much more tempting.
The only way to deal with repeated Ghestem (or similar) forgets is to log them. Once there is evidence that it can be bid as per convention card or as a single-suiter, then you can (in the EBU) rule illegal agreement. But one hand, by itself, proves nothing.
Maybe West was psyching with a massive heart fit.
The rules for fielded misbids changed in August. The following are from the White Book.
-----------------------
"There is no longer an automatic adjustment for a fielded misbid. Instead, the TD will determine what the likely partnership understanding is and rule on possible misinformation on that basis."
"Of course, it is possible that a player knows from the legal auction and from his own hand that his partner has misbid for example, partner shows three aces in response to Gerber but the player has three aces. It is also possible that a player has a hand that makes it very likely but not certain that partner has misbid for example, partner opens a Texas 4 (showing a good pre-empt in hearts) and the player holds K10xxxx and no clubs. It is not possible to provide guidance as to the strength of evidence required before a player may legitimately act on the basis that partner has misbid. Individual cases are rare, and can be judged on their merits."
-----------------------
So - is the 3♠ overcall (not alerted) sufficiently strong evidence before North can legitimately act on the basis partner has misbid?
(Individual cases are rare - but they seem to end up on forums rather a lot.)
I know we all want to hang NS for 'convention disruption' - but this time they might get away with it (depending on enquiries about whether this has happened before) There is no UI for North so we can't alter the contract to 3♠ XX +1, much as we'd like to. South has UI but I cannot see any LAs to passing 3♠.