Hello everyone :
First of all,let's read the book " Two over one Game Force (Revised-Expanded) " by Max Hardy.
The hand beyond description in 2/1 system is six cards club with game invitational 9-11hcp.
As we know that jump shift response of 3♣ to an opening 1♦ is systemically to show a hand with 6-card ♣ suit and game invitational values (9+ to 12- points).
Now I have some similar problems on it here:
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After your partner opens 1♣,you hold :
1-
♠: 54
♥: K93
♦: KQ10962
♣: Q8
2-
♠: xx
♥: xxx
♦: AKQxxx
♣: xx
If it goes :
1♣ - 1♦
1NT - ?
How to describe two hands? How to differentiate between two hands?
-------------------------------------------------
After your partner opens 1♥, you hold :
1-
♠: K93
♥: 54
♦: Q8
♣: KQ10962
2-
♠: xxx
♥: xx
♦: xx
♣: AKQxxx
The bidding sequences go :
1♥ - 1nt
2♦ - ?
How to describe two hands? How to differentiate between two hands?
--------------------------------------------------
After your partner opens 1♠, you hold :
1-
♠: 54
♥: k93
♦: Q8
♣: KQ10962
2-
♠: xx
♥: xxx
♦: xx
♣: AKQxxx
The bidding sequences go :
1♠ - 1nt
2♦ - ?
How to describe two hands? How to differentiate between two hands?
Now I think all the 2/1 players are sure to make some painful guessing to decide final contract in the most of situations.
Any suggested plans are welcomed.
Lycier
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The two hands beyond description in 2/1 system
#2
Posted 2016-January-05, 08:40
After partner's 1NT rebid I would sign off with both of them. Maybe pass at matchpoints and 2♦ at IMPs? In any case, this is a matter of judgment, not system, since I am in charge and just place the contract.
After partner's 1M opening, 1NT followed by 3♣ would normally show a slightly weaker hand. So the choice is between an immediate 3♣ bid (if agreed to show invitational strength) or 1NT followed by 2NT. I think Hardy plays it the other way, i.e. the immediate 3♣ is weak while 1NT followed by 3♣ is invitational.
In any case, I have the choice between showing an invitational hand with clubs or an invitational balanced non-fitting hand.
I would chose to describe hand 1 as balanced and hand 2 as clubs, but playing Hardy's methods I will onfurtunately become declarer in a notrump contract with hand 2.
After partner's 1M opening, 1NT followed by 3♣ would normally show a slightly weaker hand. So the choice is between an immediate 3♣ bid (if agreed to show invitational strength) or 1NT followed by 2NT. I think Hardy plays it the other way, i.e. the immediate 3♣ is weak while 1NT followed by 3♣ is invitational.
In any case, I have the choice between showing an invitational hand with clubs or an invitational balanced non-fitting hand.
I would chose to describe hand 1 as balanced and hand 2 as clubs, but playing Hardy's methods I will onfurtunately become declarer in a notrump contract with hand 2.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
#3
Posted 2016-January-06, 13:12
After a 1C open:
1.
At imps, 3D. At MP, maybe 2N.
2.
3N.
After a major open
1. 2N
2. 3C
A 2N redid by Hardy after a forcing NT shows 9-12 with other suits well-stopped so I think its a very reasonable description of our 10-count.
1.
At imps, 3D. At MP, maybe 2N.
2.
3N.
After a major open
1. 2N
2. 3C
A 2N redid by Hardy after a forcing NT shows 9-12 with other suits well-stopped so I think its a very reasonable description of our 10-count.
#4
Posted 2016-January-07, 00:05
I'm basically in agreement with monikrazy on the auctions.
After
1 M - 1 NT
2 ♦ - 3 ♣
opener normally passes unless a maximum as you're showing a hand with just long ♣.
So 2 NT by responder becomes sort of a 9-11 catchall invitational bid.
After
1 M - 1 NT
2 ♦ - 3 ♣
opener normally passes unless a maximum as you're showing a hand with just long ♣.
So 2 NT by responder becomes sort of a 9-11 catchall invitational bid.
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