Our default is that doubles are takeout. Should this be an exception? If yes, can it be formulated as a more general rule (e.g. whenever they balance against our NT contract, all doubles are penalty?)
Takeout or penalty?
#1
Posted 2015-December-04, 09:15
Our default is that doubles are takeout. Should this be an exception? If yes, can it be formulated as a more general rule (e.g. whenever they balance against our NT contract, all doubles are penalty?)
-- Bertrand Russell
#2
Posted 2015-December-04, 09:22
#3
Posted 2015-December-04, 09:31
London UK
#4
Posted 2015-December-04, 10:37
#5
Posted 2015-December-04, 10:42
lycier, on 2015-December-04, 10:37, said:
2♦ means "I have diamonds and I'm too weak to sit for 1NTx".
-- Bertrand Russell
#6
Posted 2015-December-04, 11:22
mgoetze, on 2015-December-04, 10:42, said:
I got it, and thank you.
I think this is a penalty double by South,if by opener,of course,it is takeout for sure.
My reason is that there is no any evidence to show opps have found real suit fit,so logically it would be penalty.
What else?
#7
Posted 2015-December-04, 11:39
lycier, on 2015-December-04, 11:22, said:
I think this is a penalty double by South,if by opener,of course,it is takeout for sure.
My reason is that there is no any evidence to show opps have found real suit fit,so logically it would be penalty.
What else?
By the same logic, 1♦-x would also be penalty as opps have not found a real suit fit. Let alone 1♥/1♠-x where opps are technically not guaranteed to have found a real suit fit, but OK, let's say that they are statistically likely to have one.
George Carlin
#8
Posted 2015-December-04, 19:42
gwnn, on 2015-December-04, 11:39, said:
Very interesting.
Logically what you said can't lead back to same thing.Now,please allow me to take a classic example:
XX=I usually have 10hcp plus,our joint strength is more than opps.
And then after XX,one of opps is forced to escape to one new suit,all the double by opener or responder are penalty because of misfit.
As for this hand,let's make a logic analysis.
Why does East escape to 2d after first double by West ? just because of weakish hand,Mgoetze said well," 2♦ means "I have diamonds and I'm too weak to sit for 1NTx". in another word,East is forced to escape to 2♦,so proving by the same methods,I would decide the second double by South is only for penalty because of misfit.
#9
Posted 2015-December-04, 19:43
gwnn, on 2015-December-04, 11:39, said:
Very interesting.
Logically what you said can't lead back to same thing.Now,please allow me to take a classic example:
XX=I usually have 10hcp plus,our joint strength is more than opps.
And then after XX,one of opps is forced to escape to one new suit,all the double by opener or responder are penalty because of misfit.
As for this hand,let's make a logic analysis.
Why does East escape to 2d after first double by West ? just because of weakish hand,Mgoetze said well," 2♦ means "I have diamonds and I'm too weak to sit for 1NTx". in another word,East is forced to escape to 2♦,so proving by the same methods,I would decide the second double by South is only for penalty because of misfit.
#11
Posted 2015-December-04, 20:28
And here a 2M bid should just show 4 of them as you didn't transfer over the 1nt bid. Might be a (rare) problem when responder has 4-4 in the majors but I'll pay off to that as they could have risked 2 clubs directly.
What is baby oil made of?
#12
Posted 2015-December-04, 20:52
1. gwnn asks lycier something
2. lycier answers gwnn
3. lycier asks gwnn something
4. gwnn answers lycier
You skipped from 1 to 3 without skipping a beat. That's unfair and rude.
George Carlin
#13
Posted 2015-December-04, 21:25
1- I have a good ♦ constructure with some strength in the hand,we can beat opps 2♦ contract because of opps misfit.
2- Or I have some defensive tricks in ♦,our joint strength are more than opps,we can beat opps 2♦ contract.
#14
Posted 2015-December-05, 01:54
George Carlin
#16
Posted 2015-December-05, 17:36
ggwhiz, on 2015-December-04, 20:28, said:
This seems weird to me. Wherever you have asymmetrical doubles, your partnership can only bid half as many hands.
#17
Posted 2015-December-05, 17:45
Jinksy, on 2015-December-05, 17:36, said:
Well, the rationale is that half of the hands aren't meant to be bid at all (let's say, if the 1NT opener doubles for penalty when she's under the bidder but her p hasn't shown any points). I'm not sold on it (the half in my previous sentence is really less than half), but this is the standard defence of the method and it has at least some merit.
George Carlin
#18
Posted 2015-December-06, 03:42
#19
Posted 2015-December-06, 04:37
as responder hasn't shown anything on this auction, doubles are take-out from both sides.
#20
Posted 2015-December-06, 04:55
But when they bid a red suit I think t/o is clearly superior. Probably also if they bid spades.