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Game try double extended

Poll: Game try double extended (11 member(s) have cast votes)

Is 1D-1H-(2C)-X-(3C)-X a game try double?

  1. Obvious game try double (1 votes [9.09%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 9.09%

  2. It makes sense but needs discussion (1 votes [9.09%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 9.09%

  3. No, it should be takeout (7 votes [63.64%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 63.64%

  4. No, it should be penalty (1 votes [9.09%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 9.09%

  5. Other/Abstain (1 votes [9.09%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 9.09%

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#1 User is offline   mgoetze 

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Posted 2015-August-13, 16:32

As we all know, when the opponents leave you no other way to invite, double should serve as the invitation:


How about here:


We have not explicitly established a fit, yet there is no other way to invite with 5 hearts, as 3 would tend to deny them. So should this also be a game try double?

Tell me your opinion in the poll and then post some other auctions where double as game try could make sense even though it's not strictly speaking the only bid available.
"One of the painful things about our time is that those who feel certainty are stupid, and those with any imagination and understanding are filled with doubt and indecision"
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#2 User is offline   WesleyC 

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Posted 2015-August-13, 21:41

I think that if you haven't unambiguously found an 8c major fit, then it is essential to use double as showing a hand with extra values, but uncertain about strain.

On hand 2 above, what else would you bid with invitational or better values and approximately 4432 shape. You might also double on some hands with 5H, but opener certainly shouldn't bid on that assumption.

If you wanted to call that a 'game try double' you could, but it's not the same as double on the first hand.
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#3 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2015-August-14, 01:41

When you're dealt a takeout double but don't have a takeout double available, you have an insoluble problem. When you're dealt a game-try but don't have a game-try available, your problem has an easy solution - bid game.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#4 User is offline   nullve 

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Posted 2015-August-14, 02:50

Classically, a direct bid shows a weaker hand than a takeout double followed by the same bid, so you might consider doubling 3C and rebidding 3H to show an invitational hand with 5+ H. The problem is that partner would bid 3S on a minimum hand with 4 S, and then you'd already be too high. In theory, though, I suppose you could play

...(3C)-X; ?:
P = LoTT decision
3D = 3H5+D, NF
3H = 5+ H, inv
3H = 4S3H, min
3S = 4S3H, extras
etc.,

as I can't think of any (other) natural use of the 3H bid that would make sense.
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#5 User is offline   SteveMoe 

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Posted 2015-August-16, 17:22

This should show 4 cards, 2 cards and invitational values - "It's our hand partner but I don't have a good bid here." Some call this DSIP but I prefer Optional Penalty. Opener can pass to convert, remove to 3 to show doubt about defending or bid on toward game.

I would expect Responder's 3 here to show 5+ trump competing with values sufficient for the 3-level(CONSTR+). Responder can bid 4 with INV+ holdings and 5+ trump.

I would expect the gap bid ()to be a game try with 5 cards.

What you are talking about apparently inverts these two meanings. The inversion reduces the scoring value of the double as we will more often pull to game. Penalties will be more likely when we have values and only a 4-3 fit.
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#6 User is offline   mgoetze 

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Posted 2015-August-16, 17:43

View PostSteveMoe, on 2015-August-16, 17:22, said:

I would expect the gap bid ()to be a game try with 5 cards.

I take it you play 1 as showing only 3+ diamonds, and you never play matchpoints?
"One of the painful things about our time is that those who feel certainty are stupid, and those with any imagination and understanding are filled with doubt and indecision"
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