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a nebulous diamond structure

#21 User is offline   foobar 

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Posted 2015-March-01, 16:10

straube said:

A lot of folks use a nebulous diamond, and I liked it even before I'd heard of IMPrecision.


Mea culpa -- bad presumption on my part that it was an IMP adaptation.

straube said:

Atul, when you wrote that IMPrecision was "excellent" I wonder whether you really understand it well enough to say. You haven't played the 1D structure and had as many or more of the misconceptions about it than I did. You also are more a fan of Reverse Flannery than I am and IMPrecision doesn't use Reverse Flannery. The other thing is that the structure is more complicated than the stuff I've been proposing and you've written a lot lately how you like things to be simpler. For example, the following does not seem to me to be something that you would like...


Bidding frameworks have both subjective and objective elements. My personal evaluation of the IMP structure probably stems from the fact that Adam's preferences in the former align more closely with mine.

That said, let's start off my comparing some specific responses:

1 - 1 (showing 2+ vs. showing 4+):

You seem to think that this is a very playable method, and while you may be right,it's very unpalatable to me. Also, there are some objective concerns that can be raised about the soundness of this method in competition. For example, consider an auction like 1 - 1 - (3) and give opener a balanced hand with say 2=4=3=2 and responder a GF hand with say 5-5 in rounded suits and a diamond stopper. If responder guesses to bids 3N, we have lost our 9 card heart fit.

Granted, it's possible to invent all sort of agreements to alleviate the problem, but the point is that I would rather play the more natural method unless there's a compelling reason otherwise.

1 - 1 - 1 (showing 3+ vs. showing 4+):

Once again, there are concerns about what happens in case of interference and frankly, in the absence of an actual frequency analysis, it's really difficult for me to accept a method that adds more complexity.

straube said:


Off the top of my head, it seems that

1D-1S, 2D-2S*
.....2N-0445
..........3C-invite
..........3D-QP ask
.....3C-0454 min
..........p/3D-invites
..........3H-QP ask
.....3D-1453 max
..........3H-QP ask
.....3H-0454 max, 6

So it's not the main thing, but complexity is a consideration.



Once again, this is a very relay centric world view. In the first place, we have a hand limited to 15 HCPs facing an invitational hand. Why is important to resolve complete shape instead of just bidding game or signing off?

To me, trying to fit relays into every bidding sequence adds an enormous amount of complexity.

straube said:

After the IMPrecision sequence 1D-1S, 1N you and I both recently believed that a 2S contract couldn't be reached if responder had a weak hand with something like a 5134 pattern. I regretted losing so many spade contracts, but I think you thought that many played as well in 1N. So we found out that awm and sieong play that 1D-1S, 1N-2S shows a 5S/4m pattern.


Sure, it was good to get the clarification, but note that this was partly the reason for preferring the reverse Flannery responses over 1D. Yes, hands that respond 1N with a stiff spade may occasionally run into a problem, but in the absence of specific information about the frequency of such problems, I don't see any need to propose a solution that might result in a worse problem.

straube said:

awm has obviously done a lot lot more thinking about his 1D structure. It seems to me probable that it's the best structure possible. I'd like, however, to be able to discuss other solutions as well. Or other tweaks at least. Btw I'd vote for 1D-1S, 2D including the 1-4-4-4s.


No argument there; it fits my subjective criteria for parsimony and more importantly, it's battle worn. Personally, I would rather start off with a known quantity and tweak it based on actual results.
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#22 User is online   awm 

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Posted 2015-March-01, 17:03

Suppose that I bid after 1-1-1 much as I would if it showed four (assuming the 31(45) pattern is rare). There seem to be the following losses:

1. I have a bad hand with three spades, typically 35(32) or 3433 or 34(42) or 35(14) or 34(15). In all these cases I'm in a pretty bad place (3-3 fit) when usually I have a real minor suit fit.
2. I have a moderate balanced hand, like 24(34); I am rebidding 1NT either way, but probably 2m is the right spot. Not sure if opener is passing or bidding 2m, but he certainly can't distinguish this shape from 4x(5x)...
3. I have a 44xx hand and inv+. I'm committed to either playing a 4-3 spade fit or having a very revealing auction.
4. I have 2425, are we even getting to our 9-10 card minor fit? It seems to depend on my choice of action over 1 and what opener does over my 1NT rebid if I choose that.

I guess the important point in the later ones of these, is that (in Sam and my methods at least) we typically rebid 2m with 4-5m after 1-1-1-1NT with 14-15 high. The reason we do this is to get a chance of reaching game when responder has 10-11 and opener has 14-15, without forcing responder to bid past 1NT on hands that have no game interest opposite the common 11-13 balanced opener. However, this means that 2m in that sequence does not promise any particular length in the other minor. Thus 1-1-1-1NT-2 does not show a "three suited hand short in hearts", it shows 4/5... So that's a bunch of losses, where are the wins:

1. I have 44xx very weak, and get to play 1 instead of 1NT or 2m. Could be a win, although possibly there is a 5-3 minor fit and this might be better than the 4-3 spade fit?
2. I have 45xx very weak and get to play 1 instead of 2 or 2m (depending on opener's rebid).

Doesn't seem all that good to me. Basically, you are opening with a 1 bid that doesn't really show a suit, and then after partner's response you rebid your 3rd longest suit. Yes, there are situations where somehow your best fit is in your 3rd longest suit, but this cannot be a percentage action!
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#23 User is offline   straube 

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Posted 2015-March-01, 17:53

View Postfoobar, on 2015-March-01, 16:10, said:


That said, let's start off my comparing some specific responses:

1 - 1 (showing 2+ vs. showing 4+):

You seem to think that this is a very playable method, and while you may be right,it's very unpalatable to me. Also, there are some objective concerns that can be raised about the soundness of this method in competition. For example, consider an auction like 1 - 1 - (3) and give opener a balanced hand with say 2=4=3=2 and responder a GF hand with say 5-5 in rounded suits and a diamond stopper. If responder guesses to bids 3N, we have lost our 9 card heart fit.

Granted, it's possible to invent all sort of agreements to alleviate the problem, but the point is that I would rather play the more natural method unless there's a compelling reason otherwise.


I don't think this belongs in this thread. We're not considering 1D-2m responses. The responder to a limited hand is captain and he can choose 1H or 2m depending on what he thinks is better. As to an example hand such as 2-4-3-4 after 1D-1H (3D), wouldn't everyone with raise hearts here? I mean, you got me for 3S or 4m interference. Perhaps 1H as bal relay should be restricted to hands with more slam interest. I don't know. If you want you can start another thread about whether 1H as natural/GF relay is good or not. I don't think anything in this thread hinges on that decision.


View Postfoobar, on 2015-March-01, 16:10, said:


Once again, this is a very relay centric world view. In the first place, we have a hand limited to 15 HCPs facing an invitational hand. Why is important to resolve complete shape instead of just bidding game or signing off?

To me, trying to fit relays into every bidding sequence adds an enormous amount of complexity.


I really don't understand because on the one hand you seem to really like the IMPrecision structure (I like it, too) and on the other hand you really seem reluctant to "try to fit relays into every bidding sequence". So which is it? The relay and relay breaks I gave as example are IMPrecision. They are what awm and sieong wrote and they use relays and relay breaks extensively.

View Postfoobar, on 2015-March-01, 16:10, said:

Sure, it was good to get the clarification, but note that this was partly the reason for preferring the reverse Flannery responses over 1D. Yes, hands that respond 1N with a stiff spade may occasionally run into a problem, but in the absence of specific information about the frequency of such problems, I don't see any need to propose a solution that might result in a worse problem.


Well, you could look at hands. I did that using what I thought was IMPrecision and discovered I was frequently losing spade fits. Now I've learned better.

View Postfoobar, on 2015-March-01, 16:10, said:


No argument there; it fits my subjective criteria for parsimony and more importantly, it's battle worn. Personally, I would rather start off with a known quantity and tweak it based on actual results.


So are we playing?
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#24 User is offline   straube 

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Posted 2015-March-01, 18:10

View Postawm, on 2015-March-01, 17:03, said:

Suppose that I bid after 1-1-1 much as I would if it showed four (assuming the 31(45) pattern is rare). There seem to be the following losses:

1. I have a bad hand with three spades, typically 35(32) or 3433 or 34(42) or 35(14) or 34(15). In all these cases I'm in a pretty bad place (3-3 fit) when usually I have a real minor suit fit.
2. I have a moderate balanced hand, like 24(34); I am rebidding 1NT either way, but probably 2m is the right spot. Not sure if opener is passing or bidding 2m, but he certainly can't distinguish this shape from 4x(5x)...
3. I have a 44xx hand and inv+. I'm committed to either playing a 4-3 spade fit or having a very revealing auction.
4. I have 2425, are we even getting to our 9-10 card minor fit? It seems to depend on my choice of action over 1 and what opener does over my 1NT rebid if I choose that.

I guess the important point in the later ones of these, is that (in Sam and my methods at least) we typically rebid 2m with 4-5m after 1-1-1-1NT with 14-15 high. The reason we do this is to get a chance of reaching game when responder has 10-11 and opener has 14-15, without forcing responder to bid past 1NT on hands that have no game interest opposite the common 11-13 balanced opener. However, this means that 2m in that sequence does not promise any particular length in the other minor. Thus 1-1-1-1NT-2 does not show a "three suited hand short in hearts", it shows 4/5... So that's a bunch of losses, where are the wins:

1. I have 44xx very weak, and get to play 1 instead of 1NT or 2m. Could be a win, although possibly there is a 5-3 minor fit and this might be better than the 4-3 spade fit?
2. I have 45xx very weak and get to play 1 instead of 2 or 2m (depending on opener's rebid).

Doesn't seem all that good to me. Basically, you are opening with a 1 bid that doesn't really show a suit, and then after partner's response you rebid your 3rd longest suit. Yes, there are situations where somehow your best fit is in your 3rd longest suit, but this cannot be a percentage action!


ok. I think I'm persuaded. I've been looking at hands and more losses than wins for the 3-1-(54).
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#25 User is offline   foobar 

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Posted 2015-March-01, 18:30

View Poststraube, on 2015-March-01, 17:53, said:

I don't think this belongs in this thread. We're not considering 1D-2m responses. The responder to a limited hand is captain and he can choose 1H or 2m depending on what he thinks is better. As to an example hand such as 2-4-3-4 after 1D-1H (3D), wouldn't everyone with raise hearts here?


OK -- based on your stated preferences (and previous structures), I had assumed that the 1 was 2+. There might be merits to that method, but it doesn't interest me.

View Poststraube, on 2015-March-01, 17:53, said:

So are we playing?


If this means trying out the unaltered IMP structure, I am all for it.
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#26 User is offline   WGF_Flame 

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Posted 2015-March-02, 01:56

Check out the way forward system, the 1D is 11-13 bal, or 10-15 unbal without 5M or 6m. 1h is relay or nat. the structure is good, but not easy to remember.
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#27 User is offline   straube 

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Posted 2015-March-10, 07:22

I was talking to Atul about responding to 1D with a weak 6S/5H hand (or weak 5S/6H hand for that matter) and suggested that playing WJSs one would be better off preempting the 6-cd major to avoid a rebid problem after 1D-1M, 2C. Atul thought better to just rebid the 6-cd major and risk presenting the hand as invitational. After all, opener is likely not to rebid 2C and over a 1S or 1N rebid there is no problem. So I think both of us have a point and it may depend on exactly how weak the 6/5 hand is. The weaker it is, the more one ought to think about preempting it. Any clarification here?

Still thinking about structures. I think Reverse Flannery could be useful, feel that the invitation sort can be reasonably dealt with otherwise than a 2S response and that the spade WJS is frequent and useful. 1D-1S is more preemptive than 1D-1H and I would think that getting rid of spade hands is called for. Obviously I would then have to find ways then to deal with heart WJSs and IJSs.

1D-2H-Reverse Flannery
1D-2S-WJS

After 1D-1S

1N-11-13 bal or 10-13 3-suited singleton spade
.....2C-forces 2D
..........2D-forced
...............2H-5S/4H GI
...............2S-5S only, GI
.....2D-GF
.....2H-5S only, if weak then 4+m, potential to use this for COG etc
.....2S-GI 6S


2C-14-15 3-suited short spade or 10-15 04(54)
.....P-4C or 5-3-2-3
.....2D-correction
..........2H-1-4-3-5
.....2H-artificial ask
..........2S-04(54)
...............3m-invitational
..........etc-patterning
.....2S-6S, GI?
.....2N-5332 or 4333, GF opposite the usual 14-15 but correctable opposite 10-13 04(54)s
.....3L-weak, preemptive

2D-10-15 5m/5m
.....2H-artificial ask
..........2S-minimum
..........etc
.....2S-GI
.....2N-GI
..........3M-3M
.....3C-correction
.....3D-preemptive
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#28 User is offline   foobar 

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Posted 2015-March-10, 23:24

View Poststraube, on 2015-March-10, 07:22, said:

Atul thought better to just rebid the 6-cd major and risk presenting the hand as invitational. After all, opener is likely not to rebid 2C and over a 1S or 1N rebid there is no problem. So I think both of us have a point and it may depend on exactly how weak the 6/5 hand is. The weaker it is, the more one ought to think about preempting it. Any clarification here?



Seems interesting -- note that the preference for reverse Flannery is out of familiarity and isn't backed up by any real analysis. If frequency of WJS is more (and it likely is), it's perfectly fine to use that instead.

This scheme seems to try and hedge the bets and it might be interesting to see how 2 WJS compares with 2 as rev Flannery. Probably a simulation might yield some data...
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#29 User is offline   straube 

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Posted 2015-March-12, 00:46

So two thoughts for 1D-1H which now has to account for WJS with 6H. Which is better?

1S-4S
1N-bal (including 22(54))
2C-5m/4m+
.....2H-to play
.....2S-GF
.....3H-GI
2D-raise with shortness, includes 13(54) and 0355
2H-bal raise with 4
2S-void raise


or...

1S-4S
1N-bal or 3-1-(54) 10-13
.....2C-requests 2D
..........2D
...............2H-GI with 5+
.....2D-5H/4 if sign off, otherwise GF with 5
..........2H-2 or 3H
..........2S-3-1-(54)
.....2H-6H sign off
.....2S-GF relay
..........2N-4m4m or 3-1-(54)
..........3C-5C332
..........3D-4m333
..........etc-5D332
2C-5/5 or 3-1-(54) 10-13
.....2H-to play
.....3m-invitational with 3+
.....3H-GI
etc-same

What I like about the last is that it allows responder to invite with only 3-cd support after 1D-1H, 2C because either opener has 5m/5m or the 3-1-(54) max which will bid again regardless. Also since 1D-1H, 2C denies 3 hearts, we could have an auction like 1D-1H, 2C-3C, 3H-4H where responder has something like
2623 and opener 1255. The last structure does lose out on 5H332 not being able to sign off in 2H.
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#30 User is offline   straube 

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Posted 2015-March-12, 19:28

1D-1H

1S-4S or 10-12 and 3-1-(54)
.....2C-GF relay
.....2D-GI ask, includes 6H
.....2H-6H
.....2S-raise

1N-bal
.....2C-puppets for diamond sign off or invite
.....2D-GF
.....2H-sign off, 5+

2C-5m/5m or 13-15 3-1-(54)
.....2D-preference
.....2H-to play
.....2S-GF relay
.....2N-GI, tends to deny 3m
.....3m-GI, 3+m
.....3H-GI, good suit

2D-10-13 and 4H and singleton OR 10-15 and 1-3-4-5, 1-3-5-4, 0-3-5-5
.....2H-to play, presumes 10-13
..........2S-1-3-4-5, 14-15
..........2N-1-3-5-4, 14-15
..........3C-0-3-5-5, 14-15

2H-4H, bal
.....2S-GF relay

2S-14-15, 5m/5m
.....2N-GF relay

2N-4H, void
.....3C-GF relay

3C-14-15, 1-4-4-4, 1-4-3-5, 1-4-5-3
.....3D-GF relay

3D-14-15, 4-4-1-4, 3-4-1-5
.....3S-GF relay

3H-14-15, 4-4-4-1, 3-4-5-1
.....3S-GF relay


I like this best. It's simple. I've almost cut in half the hands that "have" to rebid 1S with 3-1-(54) which awm and foobar have pointed out is not such a great bid.

Keeping this to 10-12 means that I could use 1D-1H, 1S-1N, 2m as 4S/5m max just as IMPrecision does.

It means that 1D-1H, 2C-3m can be a 3-cd raise and I think that's huge; it solves all sorts of rebid problems for responder and it means that 1D-1H, 2C-2N is likely 4522 or worse and opener need not rebid 3C again to show a 5/5 hand.
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#31 User is online   awm 

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Posted 2015-March-12, 23:44

I like your 2nd structure. You may be able to do a bit better over 1nt, like:

2c = various s/o or GF
2d = 6h inv or various 5+h GF
2h = 5h inv NF
2s+ = other inv+ hands

After 2c:
... 2d = real balanced hand; now 2s relay others s/o
... 2h = 31(45) or 22(45) now pass/3m s/o

After 2c-2d, 2s relay:
2nt = clubs
3c = (23)44
3d = 3343
3h/3s/3nt = 5d-(323)
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#32 User is offline   straube 

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Posted 2015-March-13, 08:14

That's clever. I was wondering your opinion. Is the 1S rebid with 3 the main reason for liking the second better than the last?

I'm wondering, too, your thought on XYZ continuations. Until last night, I'd thought the world played 1D-1H, 1S-2C, 2D-2H promised 6 hearts and I'd like to be able to guarantee 6 here anyway. It's part of why I've wanted to rebid 1S with certain 31(54s)...to allow a GI of 6H at the 2-level. I'm also willing to give up a diamond sign off at the 2-level as 1D-1H, 1S only promises one diamond (4315 as worst). So looking at...

2C-GI ask
.....2D-0-1H, any strength
..........2H-6H
.....2H-2H and minimum (will be balanced 11-12ish)
.....2S-3H and minimum
.....2N-2+H and non-minimum
..........3m-natural, nf
..........3H-5H, f
..........3S-4S, nf
..........4H-6H


basically 1, 2, 3 hearts with 2N making an inquiry of the nature of the invitation.

Another question, if we went with 1D-1H, 1S as possibly 10-12 with the 31(54s) and responder made an XYZ invitation to 2S, would you want to play there or would you remove to 2N?
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#33 User is offline   foobar 

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Posted 2015-March-14, 00:51

View Poststraube, on 2015-March-13, 08:14, said:

I'm wondering, too, your thought on XYZ continuations. Until last night, I'd thought the world played 1D-1H, 1S-2C, 2D-2H promised 6 hearts and I'd like to be able to guarantee 6 here anyway. It's part of why I've wanted to rebid 1S with certain 31(54s)...to allow a GI of 6H at the 2-level. I'm also willing to give up a diamond sign off at the 2-level as 1D-1H, 1S only promises one diamond (4315 as worst).


Requiring 6 for XYZ after 1 - 1 - 1 doesn't seem very playable. Basically, responder will be forced to bid 2N on several hands with 5 and we could very easily miss our fit when opener holds a typical balanced hand with 43(42).

IMP uses fairly natural continuations after the forced 2 rebid and 3 shows 6.
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#34 User is offline   straube 

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Posted 2015-March-14, 09:01

The 10-12 3-1-(54) hands are a nuisance whether they're place in 1S, 1N, or 2C rebids. Rebidding 1N is nice for a start, but this screws responder when he wants to sign off in 2H with a 5H332 or with 4S5Hxy. It also adds a lot of complexity to allow separate invites for 5H vs 6H hands if you want to be able to remain at the 2H level when you have a 6-1 fit. If instead the 10-12 3-1-(54)s rebid 2C then the range is fairly wide, the GI heart hands have to rebid 3H, and responder will often have rebid problems with invitational hands, especially those without a 4-cd minor or spade stop.

Rebidding 1S with 10-12 and 3-1-(54) is also an evil, missing minor suit fits (when they exist), getting to 2S for a 4-3 fit when NT or a minor suit contract is better, etc. But it also has chances to win. Responder may rebid 1N and escape a 4-3 or 4-2 minor suit fit. Responder may pass with 4S. But I know a net loss here.

What I like about it is that the continuations are simpler. Rebidding 1S with 3-1-(54) is set up to reject any invitation, so if (after 1D-1H, 1S-2C) you accept an invitation, then you have 4S. This helps particularly after..

1D-1H, 1S-2C, 2D if 2D shows spade shortness and responder has GI with 4S and 6H. This is ticklish because opener has something like a 30% chance of having the dreaded 3-1-(54) after known heart shortness. Personally, I'd rebid 2H here because playing a 6-1 fit vs a likely 4-4 fit at the 2-level seems acceptable to me. I mean I think we would usually make. But playing a 4-3 spade fit vs a 6-1 heart fit is bad. So 1D-1H, 1S-2C, 2D-2H and now opener accepts the invitation inferring 4S and responder can correct to 4S. If opener has a minimum void hearts (and thus 4S) he rebids 2S.

So the 4S/6H hand may illustrate this best, but I'd also like the ability to sort out 5H vs 6H invitations after 1D-1H, 1S without having to play at the 3-level. Having 1D-1H, 1S-2C be an asking bid lets us do this. In fact, maybe

2D-0-1H, any strength
2H-2-3H, minimum
2S-3H, a smidge over minimum
2N-GF

could be better.

The cost of this seems to be the ability to play 2D with a weak 4H/6D hand. These hands come up. OTOH we don't really worry about 1D-1H, 1S-3C to play and with a weak 4H/6m hand we might arguably have preempted these immediately to shut out spades. Maybe bidding hearts first and then the minor should show a 5/6 or something. I mean if responder is very weak and probably vulnerable and has 4H/6D he can always pass 1D. Questions for another time maybe, but even if 1D-1H, 1S-3D shows a weak 4H/6D I can live with that.

Btw, I'm looking at...

1D-1H, 2C as 12-15 5/5 or 13-15 3-1-(54)
1D-1H, 2S as 10-11 5/5

This means that 1D-1H, 2C is more in synch as a decent hand and allows responder to invite slightly weaker (knowing 12-15 vs 10-15).

Or we could just preempt the 10-11 5/5s with 2N.

Btw Adam, we're using your 1N, 2C, and 2D and 2N structures now. What's your range for 2N and would you extend it as high as 10-11?

Maybe

2N=9-11
1D-1H, 2C=12-13 or 13-15 31(54)
1D-1H, 2S=14-15
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Posted 2015-March-14, 09:59

My feeling is that the 2nt opening is not at all good in constructive auctions, so I prefer to keep it quite weak (NV) or narrow range (V); would not want a wide range that includes 10-11. Probably 9-11 is okay though.
Adam W. Meyerson
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#36 User is online   awm 

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Posted 2015-March-14, 10:06

I think that you are somewhat worried about the wrong things here. Do you expect to win boards running from 1nt to 2h with 5332 now? Again, my experience is that this is rarely right even if opener guarantees 2-3. Too often seven tricks is the limit, or the 2h bid helps opponents balance, or they find a double when hearts break badly. This is a different case from when opener has 5332 and responder balanced, because opener has most of the strength meaning there is more likely a problem in his xx suit, his trump suit is likely more robust, there is less likely to be another effective source of tricks, etc.

This is not the same as whether to transfer over a weak notrump either, because a big win there is finding opener with four (here not possible) and ability of opponents to double a bad break is also less.
Adam W. Meyerson
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#37 User is offline   straube 

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Posted 2015-March-14, 11:44

Appreciate this feedback because I'd probably otherwise rebid 2H with 5H332 more of the time.

For the sake of separating the 5 from the 6+ GI heart hands, I'm sacrificing the ability to play 2D after 1D-1H, 1S regardless whether 1S promises 4 or not.

Then, if 1D-1H, 1N promises a balanced hand, responder's 5 and 6+H hands can be grouped. Responder can judge whether to rebid 2H with Kxxx Kxxxx x xxx or
xxx KQT8x Qx xxx (or beef up the heart suit to taste) which he can't really if 1D-1H, 1N includes 3-1-(54).

But the other issue is just the additional machinery required to handle 3-1-(54) being in with a 1N rebid. If 1N is balanced, then I have...

2C-puppets 2D for p/invite
2D-GF/5+H
2H-sign off
2S-GF relay

which is pretty simple if not the best possible.
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#38 User is offline   etha 

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Posted 2015-March-20, 08:22

I just started sending friends a hand a day for us to look at. The very first one applies here.

void Kjt7 kj8543 974.

love all imps teams head to head match winning the match is all that matters. You are in first seat.

Assuming you are passing this in your system rather than bidding 3, the bidding goes pass pass 1(nebulous) (1).

I'll let you decide what you do next and any methods you might have here before I continue.
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