Bid this slam
#1
Posted 2014-December-21, 03:00
After a slight misunderstanding p and I ended up in 6s-1. I realise p could splinter but how would it go if he had a hand too strong for that?
#2
Posted 2014-December-21, 05:36
Anyway, it seems simple to reach 6♣ after, say,
1♣ 1♠
2NT 3♣ (forcing)
If you're not 100% sure 3♣ is forcing (it is so where I play), bid 4♣ instead. Both ways should lead to the slam. It's a good one, although on the layout you need to make the right guesses to make it.
#3
Posted 2014-December-21, 06:24
My bidding:
1♣-1♥ (2+♣; transfer ♠)
2NT-3♠ (18-19, probably no 4c♠; Transfer ♣)
4♣-4♦ (real ♣'s; control)
4♥-4NT (control; RKC)
5♦-6♣ (3 or 0; to play)
AP
Result: 6♣-1
#4
Posted 2014-December-21, 06:59
There may be squeeze possibilities.
You can come down to KT h in W hand and 7s 2h in east hand then decide.
#5
Posted 2014-December-21, 07:03
#6
Posted 2014-December-22, 07:53
whereagles, on 2014-December-21, 05:36, said:
Anyway, it seems simple to reach 6♣ after, say,
1♣ 1♠
2NT 3♣ (forcing)
If you're not 100% sure 3♣ is forcing (it is so where I play), bid 4♣ instead. Both ways should lead to the slam. It's a good one, although on the layout you need to make the right guesses to make it.
Like I said there was a bit of a misunderstanding
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#7
Posted 2014-December-22, 07:59
mike777, on 2014-December-21, 06:59, said:
There may be squeeze possibilities.
You can come down to KT h in W hand and 7s 2h in east hand then decide.
But playing for the drop in hearts (and falling back on the spade finesse unless South is 45xx) is superior, since it requires the queen to come down in three rounds.
#8
Posted 2014-December-22, 08:58
The Casual, on 2014-December-22, 07:53, said:
There are several styles in which the sequence
1m 1M
2NT 3m
can be played. Under the "3♣ = forcing" style, the bid is usually one of:
1. The start of a NT stoppers sequence, with option of a 5m game if a wide open suit is detected. This is the primary meaning, which should be assumed as default.
2. A probing sequence with slam interest.
Here are some exemples of how it works:
1♣ 1♠
2NT 3♣
3♦ 4♣
pass
3♦ = diamond stop, no heart stop. (Opener bids 3NT with both suits well stopped.)
4♣ = I also have no heart stop
pass = ok, lets stop here then. (You can also play the sequence as being 100% forcing to game, in which case opener would bid game now.)
1♣ 1♠
2NT 3♣
3♥ 4♦
3♥ = heart stop, no diamond stop.
4♦ = control. "lack of diamond stop suits me. Let's go on to slam." Perhaps responder has AQxx Kxx x Qxxxx (no diamond wastage).
#9
Posted 2014-December-22, 15:23
The Casual, on 2014-December-22, 07:53, said:
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There are zounds of ways to play it. I play that 3♣ is a relay (asking aobut majors) and 3♦ is natural. I would struggle to set up clubs as fit, the only way it theory is to jump to 4♣ over 2NT, however I suspect some of my partner's would take it as autosplinter instead (6+ spades and singleton club with slam interest)
You can also play new minor forcing, but it is very bad agreement IMO
Also possible is to play wolf sing off (never played it, but I think 3♣ is a weak hand that wants to sing off in 3x)
And I think nowdays some people play full transfers, so 3♠ would be a transfer to clubs.