[kgr]

MP's; all non-vulnerable; you are dealer

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What do you open?

If you open 1♠ then it goes:
1♠-(Pass)-2♣!-(2♦)
?
2♣=Invite+ with ♣ OR Invite+ with 3c♠
What now?:
- 2♠=6+c♠, NF
- 3♠=6+c♠, Slam interest
- 4♠=6+c♠, To play



Both hands and bidding. How do you play?:
This is how opps bid 6♠ at our table:

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LHO leads ♦8 (clearly a singleton or a doubleton).
How do you plan the play

[mikeh]

I would have opened 4♠. Oh well, maybe I can make this slam and justify the auction.

I think it pretty clear that we need the club A onside and some luck

So: win, cross in hearts and lead the club K. Ruff away the Ace, and now ruff a diamond...I am not playing RHO for 7 diamonds.

I now cash a club and pitch a diamond.

I plan, subject to any table action or carding that makes me think otherwise (and I probably won't rely too much on their carding here) to play another top club, hoping for 3-3 or short clubs on my left. If there are short clubs on my left, I overruff and hope that hearts are 3-3.

I likely need spades to be 3-2 or 2-3 to make this. Indeed, if rho has Ax of spades where the x is not the 5, he can embarrass me by ruffing the 3rd club with his spot, which is why I may be paying attention to the clubs, and why the ops should be carding either with no information or randomly against these sorts of contracts.

[kgr]

mikeh, on 2014-November-19, 17:53, said:

I would have opened 4♠. Oh well, maybe I can make this slam and justify the auction.

Surprised by this. I thought 1♠ followed by 4♠ would be the standard bidding (even vulnerable).
We had a discussion after the club tournament. I said I would bid 1♠ followed by 3♠ (Slam interest...the discussion was at the bar), but then thought that 1♠ followed by 4♠ was best.


Note: Declarer did follow your line more or less and made; I think RHO has something like Ax=xx=KQJxxx=Axx.

[Nabooba]

Why not open the hand with a 4♠ bid? Surely that is being a far better opening. I will play as follows. Win the ♦, cross to a ♥ and play a high ♣. If this is covered I ruff and ruff a ♦. Now it depends on what the cards are when I play another high ♣ from the dummy.

[BillPatch]

I agree with the opening 1♠ and the NF 2♠ rebid made at the table. Assuming that the 4♠ bid was weaker(fast arrival) I agree with that, and my standard partnership default agreement is 1430 last suit so I also agree with that. Since West implied a minimum opener with every rebid, I think East should be assessed blame for keycarding to the bad slam even though West was able to salvage the contract.

Why not open 4♠? I think that there are too many possible hands for partner where we belong in a part score, or where he will have the right hand for a good slam.

[whereagles]

I think I'd try 4♠ 2nd round. Pard rates to have the inv+ hand with clubs and if he wants to go slamming, the hand is just what could be expected for the sequence.

[the hog]

A 4S opening of course. Burgess' rule. I like Nabooba's line.

[BillPatch]

I choose the 2♠NF rebid because if partner has a club invite, I do not see enough transferable values for game on a misfit. Also, the stronger bid would encourage partner more toward slam, and I don't want to do that. I would expect a slightly stronger hand to bid game on the second round. A 4♠ opening is too soft, a 4♠ rebid is too hard: the 2♠ rebid is the Goldilocks bid.

[SteveMoe]

Seems right to double 2♦ allowing partner to pass with GF ♣ hand or rebid 3♠ with 3-card invite (I'll bid 4). The rebids available allow adding the penalty double as if pard had bid 2♣ natural GF. North wont sit for this double, but there are hands where it's the best place....