What do you call here?
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Losing a match by 2 IMPs - part 1
#2
Posted 2013-September-23, 16:52
4S
"I think maybe so and so was caught cheating but maybe I don't have the names right". Sure, and I think maybe your mother .... Oh yeah, that was someone else maybe. -- kenberg
"...we live off being battle-scarred veterans who manage to hate our opponents slightly more than we hate each other. -- Hamman, re: Wolff
"...we live off being battle-scarred veterans who manage to hate our opponents slightly more than we hate each other. -- Hamman, re: Wolff
#4
Posted 2013-September-24, 01:28
4♠ is quite clear, I have just about the best negative response I could have, and it looks like we've found a great fit.
#6
Posted 2013-September-24, 05:19
Partner could've bid 2H at his second turn, which would be the equivalent of 2C 2D 2H in standard methods, and he didn't do that, so partner could have up to a 21 count in theory.
#7
Posted 2013-October-17, 06:34
Playing in my own style, I would answer 4♠ to 4♦ showing a good hand for slam and 1 key card. Playing a more traditional way I would still bid 4♠, this time simply showing a suitable hand with a spade control.
As an aside, would 2♦ over 1♠ not have shown 5+ hearts and 4+ diamonds? Is there an inference here that Opener holds 6+ hearts and precisely 3 diamonds?
As an aside, would 2♦ over 1♠ not have shown 5+ hearts and 4+ diamonds? Is there an inference here that Opener holds 6+ hearts and precisely 3 diamonds?
(-: Zel :-)
#8
Posted 2013-October-17, 08:25
In the context of a negative response, presumably showing 0-7 HCP, I have quite a nice hand notwithstanding the singleton heart. I think 4♠ is clear.
#9
Posted 2013-October-17, 08:37
4N. The club control cannot be found *and* the keycards shown (if using Turbo, we can't stop either if sufficient keycards are there). The other option of 4S I think doesn't really communicate much because partner's 4D was forcing us to cue with any non-crap anyways.
My assumptions about the system could be totally wrong and 4D could be nonforcing, when 4S makes more sense, but that's what I'm going on.
My assumptions about the system could be totally wrong and 4D could be nonforcing, when 4S makes more sense, but that's what I'm going on.
#10
Posted 2013-October-17, 08:44
Zelandakh, on 2013-October-17, 06:34, said:
Playing in my own style, I would answer 4♠ to 4♦ showing a good hand for slam and 1 key card. Playing a more traditional way I would still bid 4♠, this time simply showing a suitable hand with a spade control.
As an aside, would 2♦ over 1♠ not have shown 5+ hearts and 4+ diamonds? Is there an inference here that Opener holds 6+ hearts and precisely 3 diamonds?
As an aside, would 2♦ over 1♠ not have shown 5+ hearts and 4+ diamonds? Is there an inference here that Opener holds 6+ hearts and precisely 3 diamonds?
I dont see why he can't be 6-4. 2♦ should be 5-4 5-5 or 6-4 with bad hearts etc.
♠x
♥AKTxxx
♦AKxx
♣Ax
Is a fairly cold grand. Over 4♠ partner uses my special club - Sand Wedge RKCB (5♥), since 4NT would be DI, suggesting x AKQxxx AKxx Qx.
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