[kgr]

IMP's, teams

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2♣=invite+; 3c♠ or ♣ (We don't play 2/1; 2♣ is not GF).
2♥=4+c♥, forcing
3NT=to play,

other bids iso 3NT would be:
- 2NT=10-11 HCP, NF
- 2♠=3c♠, NF
- 3♠=3c♠,SI
- 3♣=6c♣, GF
- 3♦=4th suit, GF
- 3♥=4c♥, SI

Do you pass 3NT or bid 4♥?

[mr1303]

If partner had 3 hearts and some potential for playing in hearts, he could bid 3D. He did not, so therefore he has not. I put down the dummy.

[gszes]

I have 3 quick tricks (a cornucopia compared to most opening bids these days) a singleton
club (could have been void) and the T9 of diamonds which may very well carry more than
their full weight. P should not be disappointed with this dummy and the odds of a 53 heart
fit being better are not that great anyway. There may be many ways to make 3n but only
a tiny number of ways to make 4h.

[Fluffy]

in 2/1 this is an easy pass, but on other systems not so much, I like bidding 4♥ with no strong conviction.

[EricK]

If partner has FSF available then we can assume he doesn't care that you might be 5/5 in the majors. So I pass.

[rmnka447]

Partner knows within 1 card what my major suit holding is. Partner has summarily made a decision on where to play the contract, so I'll respect partner's decision.

I pass.

If 3 NT turns out to be wrong, then partner and I might have discussion about a better way to bid the hand. That's better than trying to explain why I bid 4 ♥ when playing 3 NT is right.

[neilkaz]

PD didn't bid 3♦ as 4SF so he either doesn't have 3♥ or doesn't care if I am 5-5 in the majors. I have an easy pass here and suspect that he expect to stop ♦ twice. Perhaps my T9 can help in that regard.

[Antrax]

Forgive the devil advocacy, but what is opener supposed to bid after FSF if he's 5-4 in the majors with no diamond stop? Is 3♠ an idle bid here?
In other words, isn't it possible responder was worried about opener bypassing 3NT?

[RSClyde]

Antrax, on 2013-October-08, 00:52, said:

Forgive the devil advocacy, but what is opener supposed to bid after FSF if he's 5-4 in the majors with no diamond stop? Is 3♠ an idle bid here?
In other words, isn't it possible responder was worried about opener bypassing 3NT?

Agreed... I hate to be "that poster" but to me this highlights another of the many problems with not playing 2♣ as a game force.

[ArtK78]

4♥.

[Winstonm]

4H - I have no choice unless I just get a kick out of pretending to be a great guesser.

[Zelandakh]

RSClyde, on 2013-October-08, 07:28, said:

Agreed... I hate to be "that poster" but to me this highlights another of the many problems with not playing 2♣ as a game force.

To me this highlights some problems with natural bidding generally. An artificial auction might start: 1♠ - 1NT (INV+); 2♦ (4+♥s) - 2♥ (GF); 2♠ (5+♥s or 54(40)) - 2NT (relay); 3♥ (5521) saving (at least) a level of bidding. Natural bidding tends to end up with some hands being good and some hands being bad, whereas artificiality is usually defined so as to even these fluctuations out.

[kgr]

NS hands and bidding:
IMP's, teams

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2♣=invite+; 3c♠ or ♣ (We don't play 2/1; 2♣ is not GF).
2♥=4+c♥, forcing
3NT=to play,

4♥-1, 3NT made at the other table.
(West had ♥JTxx)