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what is partner doing? quack quack

#1 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2013-September-11, 15:15

KQ32
QJ64
J
KQJ2

opps vul, IMPs

(1)-double-(1)-1
(2)- 2 -(3)-3
(pass)-??
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#2 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2013-September-11, 15:23

Partner is bidding his cards. He has hearts. I raise.

The 1 bid by LHO may have been a psyche. In any event, if partner doesn't have hearts he can correct to spades. He must have a game try, and I have a game bid.
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#3 User is offline   CSGibson 

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Posted 2013-September-11, 15:47

Partner has a max 1 call and no interest in defending diamonds. 3 would just be competitive, so this is a game try. I accept.
Chris Gibson
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#4 User is offline   kayin801 

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Posted 2013-September-11, 20:08

View PostCSGibson, on 2013-September-11, 15:47, said:

Partner has a max 1 call and no interest in defending diamonds. 3 would just be competitive, so this is a game try. I accept.


This. If X would be penalty then partner has no other way of inviting (assuming 3 is just competitive)
I once yelled at my partner for discarding the 'wrong' card when he was subjected to a squeeze that I allowed by giving the wrong count with too high a card. Now he's allowed to pitch aces when the opponents have the king in the dummy. At trick 2. When he could have followed suit. And blame me.

East4Evil sohcahtoa 4ever!!!!!1
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#5 User is offline   the_clown 

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Posted 2013-September-13, 03:44

I would bid 4 to let partner clarify. Surely we are not playing slam after I could only raise 1 to 2 so 4 should be pick a game.
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#6 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2013-September-13, 05:07

I'd bid 4. If partner is 4-4 in the majors, It's better to play in the suit where we have the minor honours, and if we play in spades and LHO hasn't psyched we'll probably lose at least one heart ruff.

Partner will never pass 4 without four of them, so I can't see any risk of misunderstanding. 4 would suggest more equal majors.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#7 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2013-September-13, 18:05

partner bid a dreadful 3 with:

Jxxx
A10
109x
Axxx

He later said he should had bid 3, I told him I was sure I could find players for whom 3 would be natural :P.
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#8 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2013-September-13, 19:08

Why did partner not bid 2 first time?
The easiest way to count losers is to line up the people who talk about loser count, and count them. -Kieran Dyke
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#9 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2013-September-14, 03:40

View PostFluffy, on 2013-September-13, 18:05, said:

partner bid a dreadful 3 with:

Jxxx
A10
109x
Axxx

He later said he should had bid 3, I told him I was sure I could find players for whom 3 would be natural :P.


You're partner's right, though possibly not for the right reason. In a sequence like this, where it's possble that they've psyched and also quite likely that we'd want to play in the suit, you should pretend that hearts are an unbid suit. If double would be for penalties, I think 3 is just an artificial game-try, in the same way as it would be after 1 (2) 2 (3).

However, 3 is also what he'd bid if he had a game-try with four hearts. As we have enough to accept, we should still bid 4 on the way to 4.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#10 User is offline   rhm 

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Posted 2013-September-14, 05:19

View PostFluffy, on 2013-September-13, 18:05, said:

partner bid a dreadful 3 with:

Jxxx
A10
109x
Axxx

He later said he should had bid 3, I told him I was sure I could find players for whom 3 would be natural :P.

No his initial 1 in response to the takeout DBL response was terrible. His hand is worth between 10-11 HCP. I would never bid game after 1, which denies two bullets.
Even though 1 was unforced it is still strictly limited by the failure to take stronger actions. Later actions in the bidding can only refine your holding within limits of your initial action.
All those game suggestion over 3 are terrible overbids in my opinion with no first round controls, 2 kings and an assortments of quacks.
I would have bid 2 initially, after which game might be reached. Make the hand any stronger, say a fifth spade and I would force to game.

Rainer Herrmann
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#11 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2013-September-14, 09:13

I think 1 is fine. If partner has four spades, he will raise on any hand where game is makeable. If he has only three spades he'll need a lot for us to make game. If he has a minimum with three spades, I don't necessarily want to play in 2.

Rather than 2, it seems a much better description of my hand to bid 1, planning to make a game try opposite a raise, or a value-showing double if the opponents compete to two of a red suit and partner passes.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#12 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2013-September-14, 11:39

Once upon a time, responders to takeout doubles were supposed to jump with 8+HCP and a presumed suit fit. This hand qualifies for a 2 bid under those criteria.

It is much more common today to make a simple response on the minimum portion of that range. In this case, with only Jxxx of spades and a 10 count, a 1 bid (and certainly a free 1 bid) is adequate. This also takes into account that the standards for takeout doubles today are much lower than they used to be.

My regular partner likes to adhere to the older standards. With him, I might bid 2 on the advancer's hand here. With others I would bid 1. It all depends on the style of your partnership.
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#13 User is offline   rhm 

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Posted 2013-September-14, 14:51

View Postgnasher, on 2013-September-14, 09:13, said:

I think 1 is fine. If partner has four spades, he will raise on any hand where game is makeable. If he has only three spades he'll need a lot for us to make game. If he has a minimum with three spades, I don't necessarily want to play in 2.

Rather than 2, it seems a much better description of my hand to bid 1, planning to make a game try opposite a raise, or a value-showing double if the opponents compete to two of a red suit and partner passes.

I do not like this philosophy.
The point is not whether opener raises with four spades, he almost always does, at least in competition. The problem is that in the modern style opener also raises when game is not makeable. Otherwise you get stolen blind often.
With your philosophy advancer's hand does not get limited while openers spade raise is wide ranging starting from minimum values and four spades.
That way you can not stop in 2 spades when opener is minimum, but advancer has more, nor can advancer properly describe the values of his hand. (too wide ranging)
Jumping to 2 immediately just tells opener that you got at least four cards in spades and game might be on if opener has also four spades and a little extra.
If opener has 3 spades you just play 2 spades unless opener has substantial extras. Big deal. Probably the best partial for our side anyway.
Here you were lucky that opponents bid hearts but then competed in diamonds, which at least allowed for a 3 bid. But for me this bid still denies the values to bid 2 initially

Rainer Herrmann
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#14 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2013-September-14, 16:54

View PostArtK78, on 2013-September-14, 11:39, said:

It is much more common today to make a simple response on the minimum portion of that range. In this case, with only Jxxx of spades and a 10 count, a 1 bid (and certainly a free 1 bid) is adequate. This also takes into account that the standards for takeout doubles today are much lower than they used to be.


The big difference is that 1 is a free bid, over a pass he would had bid 2 100% sure. But when you add pass into the mixture the ranges move.
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#15 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2013-September-15, 04:09

As partner should have bid 1S even if you take away one of his Aces, I think 2S is totally obvious here!
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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