MP's
5 and 6 Both are wrong, which is worse?
#1
Posted 2013-March-22, 05:35
MP's
wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:
rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:
My YouTube Channel
#2
Posted 2013-March-22, 06:52
#3
Posted 2013-March-22, 06:55
#4
Posted 2013-March-22, 07:12
It gives East the chance to believe that West had his bid
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Roland
Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
#5
Posted 2013-March-22, 13:39
Codo, on 2013-March-22, 07:12, said:
It gives East the chance to believe that West had his bid
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Since when is West likely to be 3217? And if he is, why aren't we defending? If we knew he was 3217, we double and lead the diamond A, don't we?
Anyway, in most games, when the opps bid 1 -4, they usually own 10+ trumps, so the notion is silly anyway.
The fact that West held 3 spades makes his call more palatable but does nothing to increase the plausibility of the 6♣ idioicy.
Frankly, I dislike 5♣ as a unilateral decision, but one that was actually going to work out until East lost whatever mind he used to have.
#6
Posted 2013-March-22, 15:47
George Carlin
#7
Posted 2013-March-22, 19:29
#8
Posted 2013-March-22, 21:37
wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:
rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:
My YouTube Channel
#10
Posted 2013-March-23, 01:46
West makes a gamble and succeeds to lift them a level. But when South bids 5♠ it clearly indicates that he has a good hand and that 4♠ would easily make. There's a reasonable chance to defeat the 5♠ however because of a possible ♦ ruff, so East didn't think this through at all. Why take a sure minus when you may get a plus score instead?