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fourth suit forcing 2/1GF auction

#1 User is offline   Stephen Tu 

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Posted 2012-December-03, 15:15

You hold A987xKQJAQJ9x

Uncontested, auction proceeds:
1-2;
2-2;
?

2 systemically is 4+ clubs and more often 5+ clubs than 4, not the "clubs or balanced" treatment.

1. What's the default meaning of 2? I think if partner expect 2s=100% 3s, 2nt = heart stop, 3c = 6c, that 2 should be possibly artificial (say 2335 no heart stop), especially since 2 denied a 4 cd heart suit. So 2 = no heart stop or 5+ hearts? Agree or should one bid this with x4x5/x4x6?

2. What now? 2nt or 3d, and why?
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#2 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2012-December-03, 17:11

easy 3d now I have 5d and a huge hand.

a typical hand for pard might be:

Qx..xxx..Kxx..AKQxx or more

for me 2h would be 4sf does not promise 4h
I dont think pard will have 6c here unless 5h.
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#3 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2012-December-03, 19:33

Deleted .......misread the distribution.
Don Stenmark
TWOferBRIDGE
"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall

" Did someone mention relays? " .... Zelandakh

K-Rex to Mikeh : " Sometimes you drive me nuts " .
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#4 User is offline   SteveMoe 

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Posted 2012-December-03, 21:47

Stephen, I've seen 2 played two ways:
1) Natural. 4 cards (rebidding shows 5+). Some imply extra values (slammish) some don't.
2) 4SF as mike777 suggests.
I've always treated this as partnership agreement. My experience suggests Hardy devotees are more likely to use 1). My sample size is small.
BBOF folks seem to favor 2).

I agree with mike777, my next bid is 3
Be the partner you want to play with.
Trust demands integrity, balance and collaboration.
District 11
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Steve Moese
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#5 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-December-04, 02:58

What it "should be" may not be the same as the default meaning. I think it should definitely be FSF, because a natural 2 is almost pointless and you need a way to bid a 2335 without a heart stop.

If you play it as FSF, "possibly artificial" is a poor description. It will never have four hearts or a decent 3-card holding, because you would bid notrumps. The only time that 2 might actually have hearts is if you're 5-6. So it's just "artificial".

This post has been edited by gnasher: 2012-December-04, 03:01

... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#6 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2012-December-04, 03:52

From reading various threads on BBF, I have formed the opinion that this is something of an America/Europe issue. If playing with a North American I would think this 2 was natural; if playing with a European artificial. As a good European, I prefer the latter. We can still find a heart fit by defining heart bids over a NT call as natural and this makes some other auctions easier.
(-: Zel :-)
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#7 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-December-04, 06:08

Regarding the second question:

Opposite a FSF 2 I'd bid 2NT, because I have a double heart stop and poor spades. I don't want to encourage partner to put us into a 5-2 spade fit or a 5-3 diamond fit. Opposite Q10 xxx Kxx AQJxx we have nine winners in 3NT, but a play problem in 4 or 5. 3 also crowds the auction unnecessarily.

Opposite a natural 2 I'd bid 3.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#8 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2012-December-04, 08:01

In one partnership I have the agreement that 2 NT showsat least half a heart stopper and says close to nothing about the shape. The advantage is clear: You are lower then after the more popular 3 . And if partner bids 3 you can still show the fifth diamond.
Kind Regards

Roland


Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
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#9 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2012-December-05, 06:05

Interesting I would rebid 2nt over 2h with say:

xxxxx..AQx..KQJT...x

never

You hold ♠A987x♥KQJ♦AQJ9x♣
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#10 User is offline   lalldonn 

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Posted 2012-December-05, 10:42

View Postgnasher, on 2012-December-04, 06:08, said:

Regarding the second question:

Opposite a FSF 2 I'd bid 2NT, because I have a double heart stop and poor spades. I don't want to encourage partner to put us into a 5-2 spade fit or a 5-3 diamond fit. Opposite Q10 xxx Kxx AQJxx we have nine winners in 3NT, but a play problem in 4 or 5. 3 also crowds the auction unnecessarily.

Opposite a natural 2 I'd bid 3.

I much prefer 3. Obviously you made the spade holding as good as possible to still have a certain loser but if they are Kx we have a good slam (very good opposite KTx of diamonds), even if the clubs are worse. Partner could also have a hand like xx xxx KTx AKQJx opposite which 6 is great. Overall I just feel our hand is great for slam. I don't disagree that opposite your example we have a play problem in the alternate games, but it's one in which I believe we will usually be successful.
"What's the big rebid problem? After 1♦ - 1♠, I can rebid 1NT, 2♠, or 2♦."
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