Needless to say this was a disaster. Obviously west (me) is too weak to bid again but I thought p had a huge hand and didn't like ♠, so with a 5 card suit (however feeble) and a singleton in opp's suit I thought better to give options. Clearly I should have passed. But the hand brings up a question which I've run into fairly often.
Would it have been reasonable at some point for p to bid his ♣ suit? wouldn't that have shown the same values as 2nt? not trying to shift responsibility here, but wanting clarification as to why/if 2nt was better than 3♣.
I understand to some degree the logic when the suit is a minor because of the possibility of 3nt vs 5(minor) game. (Though I still think that making a minor suit game is better than going down in 3nt). But it seems that even when it's a major people bid nt rather than their suit after they've Xd. I tend to think if people don't bid a 5+ card suit it's because they don't have one..(not to open, but in subsequent bidding). I really hate it when partners do this so would like to understand why this is apparently the "correct" thing these days.