Given that you after a 1♣ opening bypass diamonds without a game force, what do you play 2H and 3H respectively to mean in these auctions?
1. 1♣ - 1♦; 1♥ - 2♥
2. 1♣ - 1♦; 1♥ - 3♥
I would assume 3♥ shows a game force? Would you want to play 2♥ to be a three card raise, even though opener is very unlikely to hold a five card suit?
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Inferences playing Walsh 1C-1D; 1H-2H/3H
#2
Posted 2012-August-20, 07:30
Yup, 2H = 3-card INV, 3H = GF. Obviously these aren't the most vital descriptions to have available which goes part-way to demonstrating the superiority of transfer walsh.
#3
Posted 2012-August-20, 08:09
Timo will say that 2♥ shows GF. Agua and I think 2♥ shows 8-10 and 3 pieces and 3♥ is GF.
I've never heard of it being 3 and invitational but that idea has merit.
I've never heard of it being 3 and invitational but that idea has merit.
Hi y'all!
Winner - BBO Challenge bracket #6 - February, 2017.
Winner - BBO Challenge bracket #6 - February, 2017.
#4
Posted 2012-August-20, 10:44
Phil, on 2012-August-20, 08:09, said:
Timo will say that 2♥ shows GF. Agua and I think 2♥ shows 8-10 and 3 pieces and 3♥ is GF.
I've never heard of it being 3 and invitational but that idea has merit.
I've never heard of it being 3 and invitational but that idea has merit.
Yep. Except I have actually (with same partner) gone from Timo's to Micky's before settling on yours over the past 25 years.
Edit: The choice between 8-10 and 11-12 is dependent upon our style decision whether to show 8-10 with a 1N response to 1C, and then whether to respond 1NT 8-10 3-3-5-2 and no spade stop. We might go back to "MickyB" style.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
#5
Posted 2012-August-20, 12:14
Bende, on 2012-August-20, 07:18, said:
Given that you after a 1♣ opening bypass diamonds without a game force, what do you play 2H and 3H respectively to mean in these auctions?
1. 1♣ - 1♦; 1♥ - 2♥
2. 1♣ - 1♦; 1♥ - 3♥
I would assume 3♥ shows a game force? Would you want to play 2♥ to be a three card raise, even though opener is very unlikely to hold a five card suit?
1. 1♣ - 1♦; 1♥ - 2♥
2. 1♣ - 1♦; 1♥ - 3♥
I would assume 3♥ shows a game force? Would you want to play 2♥ to be a three card raise, even though opener is very unlikely to hold a five card suit?
2h is gf
3h basically does not exist but if bid would show some huge hand and slam going.
no you are not showing some 3 card weak/limit raise...no.
We also play xyz so if need be we can bid this way to show a 3 card limit raise:
1c=1d
1h=2c(forces 2d)
2d(forced)=2h
the main point being with slam going hands stay low and with only a 7 card fit and less than gf try and stay at the two level, not 3 level.
#6
Posted 2012-August-20, 14:08
It all depends on your style of Walsh. Some bid 1♦ when they have a 4-card major only with GF hands, some bid it with invitational or better.
#7
Posted 2012-August-21, 01:54
Bende, on 2012-August-20, 07:18, said:
Given that you after a 1♣ opening bypass diamonds without a game force, what do you play 2H and 3H respectively to mean in these auctions?
1. 1♣ - 1♦; 1♥ - 2♥
2. 1♣ - 1♦; 1♥ - 3♥
I would assume 3♥ shows a game force? Would you want to play 2♥ to be a three card raise, even though opener is very unlikely to hold a five card suit?
1. 1♣ - 1♦; 1♥ - 2♥
2. 1♣ - 1♦; 1♥ - 3♥
I would assume 3♥ shows a game force? Would you want to play 2♥ to be a three card raise, even though opener is very unlikely to hold a five card suit?
1. invitational or slamtry (opener bids 3♥ with a minimum)
2. GF (but not enough for a slamtry)
Steven
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