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Inferences playing Walsh 1C-1D; 1H-2H/3H

#1 User is offline   Bende 

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Posted 2012-August-20, 07:18

Given that you after a 1 opening bypass diamonds without a game force, what do you play 2H and 3H respectively to mean in these auctions?

1. 1 - 1; 1 - 2
2. 1 - 1; 1 - 3

I would assume 3 shows a game force? Would you want to play 2 to be a three card raise, even though opener is very unlikely to hold a five card suit?
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#2 User is offline   MickyB 

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Posted 2012-August-20, 07:30

Yup, 2H = 3-card INV, 3H = GF. Obviously these aren't the most vital descriptions to have available which goes part-way to demonstrating the superiority of transfer walsh.
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#3 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2012-August-20, 08:09

Timo will say that 2 shows GF. Agua and I think 2 shows 8-10 and 3 pieces and 3 is GF.

I've never heard of it being 3 and invitational but that idea has merit.
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#4 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2012-August-20, 10:44

View PostPhil, on 2012-August-20, 08:09, said:

Timo will say that 2 shows GF. Agua and I think 2 shows 8-10 and 3 pieces and 3 is GF.

I've never heard of it being 3 and invitational but that idea has merit.

Yep. Except I have actually (with same partner) gone from Timo's to Micky's before settling on yours over the past 25 years.

Edit: The choice between 8-10 and 11-12 is dependent upon our style decision whether to show 8-10 with a 1N response to 1C, and then whether to respond 1NT 8-10 3-3-5-2 and no spade stop. We might go back to "MickyB" style.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#5 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2012-August-20, 12:14

View PostBende, on 2012-August-20, 07:18, said:

Given that you after a 1 opening bypass diamonds without a game force, what do you play 2H and 3H respectively to mean in these auctions?

1. 1 - 1; 1 - 2
2. 1 - 1; 1 - 3

I would assume 3 shows a game force? Would you want to play 2 to be a three card raise, even though opener is very unlikely to hold a five card suit?



2h is gf
3h basically does not exist but if bid would show some huge hand and slam going.

no you are not showing some 3 card weak/limit raise...no.


We also play xyz so if need be we can bid this way to show a 3 card limit raise:

1c=1d
1h=2c(forces 2d)
2d(forced)=2h


the main point being with slam going hands stay low and with only a 7 card fit and less than gf try and stay at the two level, not 3 level.
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#6 User is offline   barmar 

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Posted 2012-August-20, 14:08

It all depends on your style of Walsh. Some bid 1 when they have a 4-card major only with GF hands, some bid it with invitational or better.

#7 User is offline   lowerline 

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Posted 2012-August-21, 01:54

View PostBende, on 2012-August-20, 07:18, said:

Given that you after a 1 opening bypass diamonds without a game force, what do you play 2H and 3H respectively to mean in these auctions?

1. 1 - 1; 1 - 2
2. 1 - 1; 1 - 3

I would assume 3 shows a game force? Would you want to play 2 to be a three card raise, even though opener is very unlikely to hold a five card suit?


1. invitational or slamtry (opener bids 3 with a minimum)
2. GF (but not enough for a slamtry)

Steven
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#8 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2012-August-21, 02:05

View Postlowerline, on 2012-August-21, 01:54, said:

1. invitational or slamtry (opener bids 3 with a minimum)
2. GF (but not enough for a slamtry)

Steven


nooooooo

pls no.......insane


2h is gf often slam...often slam...geez guys...

otoh dont play walsh...dolnt play xyz
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