forcing?

#1 kgr

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Posted 2012-April-07, 05:18

Question triggered by other post.
Are following sequences forcing and what do they show?:

(1C)-1H-(P)-1S

(1C)-1H-(2C)-2S

(1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL
(Pas)-2D-(Pas)-2S

(1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL
(Pas)-2D-(3C)-3S

and how do you play these jumps?:
(1C)-1H-(Pas)-2S

(1C)-1H-(Pas)-3S

(1C)-1H-(2C)-3S

Remark: In fact we play transfer (1D transfer to H) and Rubens advances, but I don't think that makes a difference for the given sequences?

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#2 mgoetze

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Posted 2012-April-07, 05:31

kgr, on 2012-April-07, 05:18, said:

(1C)-1H-(P)-1S

Usually F but a minority play NF.

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(1C)-1H-(2C)-2S

F West of Germany (USA, UK, France...), NF East of Germany (Poland etc.), needs agreement here.

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(1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL
(Pas)-2D-(Pas)-2S

Opposite of above.

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(1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL
(Pas)-2D-(3C)-3S

Uhm... I dunno.

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and how do you play these jumps?:
(1C)-1H-(Pas)-2S

(1C)-1H-(Pas)-3S

(1C)-1H-(2C)-3S

Fit, fit and fit, though I won't claim this is optimal.

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#3 FrancesHinden

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Posted 2012-April-07, 14:50

kgr, on 2012-April-07, 05:18, said:

Question triggered by other post.
Are following sequences forcing and what do they show?:

(1C)-1H-(P)-1S

A matter of agreement, forcing or not forcing are both popular.

Quote

(1C)-1H-(2C)-2S

(1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL
(Pas)-2D-(Pas)-2S

If the first is forcing the second one isn't, and vice versa. I play the first as non-forcing (even though I'm west of Germany) because the chance of having a non-forcing 2S bid is so much higher than the chance of having a forcing one.

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(1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL
(Pas)-2D-(3C)-3S

Same as above

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and how do you play these jumps?:
(1C)-1H-(Pas)-2S

If 1S is non-forcing, then this is natural and forcing. Otherwise it's fit.

Quote

(1C)-1H-(Pas)-3S

(1C)-1H-(2C)-3S

Fit

#4 gnasher

Andy Bowles

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Posted 2012-April-07, 16:04

What Frances said, except

Quote

(1C)-1H-(Pas)-2S

If 1S is non-forcing, then this is natural and forcing.

I think it's reasonable to just not have a forcing spade bid at all. It's very rare that you have enough to insist on game when you don't have a fit, and when it does happen you may be able to get away with treating Hx as a fit, or just guessing the right game. With less than a game-force, it's usually OK to make a non-foricng 1♠ bid.

... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn

#5 kgr

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Posted 2012-April-08, 02:30

These are our agreements for some and my own thoughts resulting from it:

kgr, on 2012-April-07, 05:18, said:

(1C)-1H-(P)-1S

Forcing by agreement

kgr, on 2012-April-07, 05:18, said:

(1C)-1H-(2C)-2S

Proposing to my partner that this is non-forcing

kgr, on 2012-April-07, 05:18, said:

(1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL
(Pas)-2D-(Pas)-2S

Even if a direct 2S is non-forcing, I thought that this one could also be non-forcing?
Strong, but non-forcing. With a stronger hand you can now bid 3C or 3S?