dealer nord
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how to bid this diamond slam
#2
Posted 2012-March-27, 06:07
1. You do not need to bid this slam. It mades because a finesse is working.
2. You really do not need to bid this slam: you have ZERO points which are not working- okay you may spare the jack of diamonds...
There are ways to find out everything you want to know, but I would need to bid the slam in a quite silly way (like 1 ♦ 4 NT) or in a way which includes inverted minors and some other stuff, which is not approbiate for this forum.
(Just my opinion of course)
2. You really do not need to bid this slam: you have ZERO points which are not working- okay you may spare the jack of diamonds...
There are ways to find out everything you want to know, but I would need to bid the slam in a quite silly way (like 1 ♦ 4 NT) or in a way which includes inverted minors and some other stuff, which is not approbiate for this forum.
(Just my opinion of course)
Kind Regards
Roland
Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
Roland
Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
#3
Posted 2012-March-27, 06:45
Bidding slams like this is the preserve of the truly expert. Even removing the diamond J or T and replacing it with a small card makes this a truly marginal slam. Worse, its crucially dependent on souths shape. If he is 3-2-5-3 with the same cards it has very little play, as the south hand cannot get enough ruffs without the ace of clubs onside to discard a spade from dummy. Such small margins are extremely difficult to find. I would happily play in 3N on this board.
The physics is theoretical, but the fun is real. - Sheldon Cooper
#5
Posted 2012-March-27, 07:07
wank, on 2012-March-27, 06:58, said:
yes but you have 2 finesses to take or a spade lead so it's very good.
2 Finesses? Which two?
It is a very good slam because it makes, else it is a little below 50 %, so no good at all- especially as you will least often get a spade lead after declarer announced the spade control.
Kind Regards
Roland
Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
Roland
Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
#6
Posted 2012-March-27, 07:22
If W preempts in spades it seems like a pretty good slam.
1♦-(2♠)-X
3♠-3NT
is still probably a much more practical auction. Only way to slam at this point is if N makes a move over 3NT, which seems anti-percentage, despite the high probability (100%?) of a diamond fit.
1♦-(2♠)-X
3♠-3NT
is still probably a much more practical auction. Only way to slam at this point is if N makes a move over 3NT, which seems anti-percentage, despite the high probability (100%?) of a diamond fit.
I once yelled at my partner for discarding the 'wrong' card when he was subjected to a squeeze that I allowed by giving the wrong count with too high a card. Now he's allowed to pitch aces when the opponents have the king in the dummy. At trick 2. When he could have followed suit. And blame me.
East4Evil ♥ sohcahtoa 4ever!!!!!1
East4Evil ♥ sohcahtoa 4ever!!!!!1
#8
Posted 2012-March-27, 08:35
depends on agreements
my bidding for inverted minors
1♦-2♦ (10+ forcing, denies 4c major)
2NT-3NT (2NT 12-13 balanced, not forcing, Now south knows he has 28-29 combined balanced, wich can never produce a good slam)
My bidding if I don't play inverted minors:
1♦-2♣
2NT-3♦ (3♦ now is forcing, with 10-11 would had bid 3♦ previous round)
3NT
And again south is worth no more, he is facing 12-14 balanced, now maybe up to 30 combined wich again is not enough when nobody as a shortness. But if you add a bit to south, something like a queen or maybe a jack, he can try 4NT over 3NT wich is quantitative. North will quickly pass with minimum (12 in a 12-14 context) hand.
The reason why 4NT is quantitative and not blackwood is because south can bid a very strong 4♦ instead of 4NT, pulling 3NT to 4m shows a very strong slam interest and almost forces partner to cuebid any major in wich he has a control (Ace, King or shortness). 4♦ would be the correct bid if south had ♣A instead of the queen.
my bidding for inverted minors
1♦-2♦ (10+ forcing, denies 4c major)
2NT-3NT (2NT 12-13 balanced, not forcing, Now south knows he has 28-29 combined balanced, wich can never produce a good slam)
My bidding if I don't play inverted minors:
1♦-2♣
2NT-3♦ (3♦ now is forcing, with 10-11 would had bid 3♦ previous round)
3NT
And again south is worth no more, he is facing 12-14 balanced, now maybe up to 30 combined wich again is not enough when nobody as a shortness. But if you add a bit to south, something like a queen or maybe a jack, he can try 4NT over 3NT wich is quantitative. North will quickly pass with minimum (12 in a 12-14 context) hand.
The reason why 4NT is quantitative and not blackwood is because south can bid a very strong 4♦ instead of 4NT, pulling 3NT to 4m shows a very strong slam interest and almost forces partner to cuebid any major in wich he has a control (Ace, King or shortness). 4♦ would be the correct bid if south had ♣A instead of the queen.
#10
Posted 2012-March-27, 12:43
wank, on 2012-March-27, 06:58, said:
yes but you have 2 finesses to take or a spade lead so it's very good.
You have one finesse, plus the possibility of dropping J9♣ doubleton or tripleton with the A♣ onside. (A winning club finesse does not parry a spade loser.)
The slam is about 50% and the difference between 6♦ and 3NT/5♦ is marginal.
There is a big difference between a good decision and a good result. Let's keep our posts about good decisions rather than "gotcha" results!
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