[Curls77]

IMPS, all vulnerable, both pairs play SAYC

---

They say "When the opponents have bid TWO suits, a cue bid of opener's suit promises the other two suits, while a cue bid of responder's suit is natural, showing an extremely good suit and a decent hand."

How that changes when responder bids 1NT?
And what is to be done if hand had 2 hcp less?

[r_prah]

Over a opening bid of 1♠, I would have bid 2♠, a Michaels cue-bid, showing hearts and a minor; Michaels should apply in this auction as well, so I would bid 2♠.

[ArtK78]

Curls77, on 2012-March-19, 12:57, said:

IMPS, all vulnerable, both pairs play SAYC

---

They say "When the opponents have bid TWO suits, a cue bid of opener's suit promises the other two suits, while a cue bid of responder's suit is natural, showing an extremely good suit and a decent hand."

How that changes when responder bids 1NT?
And what is to be done if hand had 2 hcp less?

Who is this "they?" (Who are these "they?") In my opinion, when the opponents have bid two suits, a bid of either of their suits is natural. Neither is a cue bid. If you play sandwich NT, then both a double and 1NT show the other two suits, but the double shows more values (and less extreme shape). If you don't play sandwich NT, then double is how you show the other two suits (although 2NT is available if you have 5-5 or better distribution in your suits).

This, of course, does not address your question about 1x - (P) - 1NT. I would play a bid of opener's suit as a cue bid, meaning that it is Michaels or whatever other meaning you attach to a direct cue bid.

[Statto]

ArtK78, on 2012-March-19, 13:27, said:

Who is this "they?" (Who are these "they?") In my opinion, when the opponents have bid two suits, a bid of either of their suits is natural. Neither is a cue bid. If you play sandwich NT ...

It's possible to play the bids of opps suits to show 6-4 and 4-6 in the unbid suits, respectively, but that is irrelevant here.

2♠ looks like a normal Michaels bid.

[ahydra]

Agree that 2S should be Michaels here - and you probably don't wanna stop below 4H.

ahydra

[32519]

Sorry guys, but I have never heard of the sequence you are all proposing as Michael’s. Is this expert standard? I want to hear how many other experts agree with this sequence as being Michael’s.

What do you do after this sequence (the OP says all vul)?

---

Already you know that partner is left with the scraps regarding HCP?

With this extreme distribution, I suggest the following:
1♠-P-1NT-2♥
?
If N jumps to 4♠, feeling frisky, I can now bid 4NT as 2-places to play. Partner already knows 1. I am happy to Pass 5♣ as pass/correct.

[Zelandakh]

32519, on 2012-March-20, 07:26, said:

Sorry guys, but I have never heard of the sequence you are all proposing as Michael’s. Is this expert standard? I want to hear how many other experts agree with this sequence as being Michael’s.

What else would you play it as? Technically it is not Michaels, it simply has the same meaning of hearts and a minor.

32519, on 2012-March-20, 07:26, said:

With this extreme distribution, I suggest the following:
1♠-P-1NT-2♥
?
If N jumps to 4♠, feeling frisky, I can now bid 4NT as 2-places to play. Partner already knows 1. I am happy to Pass 5♣ as pass/correct.

Are you also happy to pass after
1♠ - P - 1NT - 2♥
4♠ - P - P - 4NT
P - 5♦?

If you do pass then partner has 3352, if not then 3262 with a small doubleton club. Of course if you pass 4♠ then partner has 1345. How much easier it is if you have already shown a 2-suiter on the first round. Now partner has a good idea whether to compete to the 5 level or not and you do not need to act unilaterally.

[gwnn]

32519, on 2012-March-20, 07:26, said:

Sorry guys, but I have never heard of the sequence you are all proposing as Michael’s. Is this expert standard? I want to hear how many other experts agree with this sequence as being Michael’s.

IANAE but I'm pretty sure it is expert standard. What else do you think it is?

[mgoetze]

I shall take an entirely novel approach and answer exactly the questions you asked.

Curls77, on 2012-March-19, 12:57, said:

How that changes when responder bids 1NT?
And what is to be done if hand had 2 hcp less?

1. When responder bids 1NT, the opponents have (generally speaking) not bid TWO suits, therefore none of what "they" said (whoever "they" are) applies.
2. The same.

I hope you weren't asking what to do with the given hand.

[P_Marlowe]

2S is still Michaels.

They have bid only one suit.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[Cyberyeti]

1♠-P-1N-X is a takeout double just like over 1♠ directly, 2♠ in this position is still michaels. I play this good or bad, and would double 4♠ to show it's the good version.

As to the two suits bid scenario, there's a big difference between:

1♣(2+)-P-1♥-2♣

and

1♥(5+)-P-1♠-2♥

The first you might want to do naturally, the second you might go decades without wanting to do naturally.