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GNT hand 4

#1 User is offline   quiddity 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 00:27


I took a flyer on this and passed in first chair. I thought we were r/w. Anyway, the auction takes a promising turn. What now?
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#2 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 00:32

strongly prefer 1s open not pass

give OP I guess 3d now.

if 1s=1nt


then i have an easy 2s now
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#3 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 00:37

The OP (original pass :rolleyes: ) was fine with me.

Can I fabricate a 3♥ splinter, now and have it mean just exactly what I want it to mean?
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#4 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 01:16

*with kenrexford voice*: 3S should be a fit jump showing 6 spades and a diamond fit right?

I would probably just bid 4D assuming 3H is invitational and natural and not a splinter. I do not think 3S should be what I said since I might bid 7-4 in the majors like that with bad spades and good hearts but it's an interesting thought.
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#5 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 01:24

Is there really a hand YOU wouldn't have opened with 5 5 majors that would want to bid 3H after pard bid diamonds twice?
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#6 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 01:28

Also certainly debatable. I would probably not open KQxxxx KJTxx x x and would probably want to bid 3H. I mean it's ok to discuss with your partner and specifically redefine 3H and 3S in this sequence when you're a passed hand, but I would not risk bidding 3H as a splinter when as an UPH I play it as 5-5 majors inv on the basis that it is impossible to have a natural 3H bid since I don't think it's true, and I don't think that's a practical way to play bridge at the table. I would certainly bid 3H if we had discussed it being a splinter.
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#7 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 03:01

As a passed hand (and I wouldn't pass this ever) I would make a 2♠ fit jump over 1♦.

I can either bid 2♥ bourke style or a 3♥ splinter over 2♦.
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#8 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 03:01

I dislike your first pass and hate your second one. But I am not sure what to bid now. The splinter idea is the best, but I surely would not invent that for this hand. I try Justins 3 ♠ and hope that partner will understand this.
Kind Regards

Roland

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#9 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 06:43

I think it's normal to play
pass-1♦
2♠
as a fit jump. Is that just an English thing?
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#10 User is online   mikeh 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 09:16

View Postgnasher, on 2012-March-12, 06:43, said:

I think it's normal to play
pass-1♦
2♠
as a fit jump. Is that just an English thing?

no
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#11 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 09:24

p - 1D
2S! ( fit-jump by a passed hand )
Don Stenmark
TWOferBRIDGE
"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall

" Did someone mention relays? " .... Zelandakh

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#12 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 09:37

I play 2♠ response as very weak, to play if you have 18-19 balanced.
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#13 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 09:49

View PostFluffy, on 2012-March-12, 09:37, said:

I play 2♠ response as very weak, to play if you have 18-19 balanced.


Why didn't you open 2♠? If too weak for 2♠, why risk a misfit when partner overcalled opened? Fit jumps by passed hand (see partnership bidding at bridge by robson/segal) has been very effective for me, and gives life to a bid (like 2♠) here that really has no other truly useful meaning.
--Ben--

#14 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 13:22

partner didn't overcall Ben, he opened the bidding
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#15 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 16:36

View Postgnasher, on 2012-March-12, 06:43, said:

I think it's normal to play
pass-1♦
2♠
as a fit jump. Is that just an English thing?


Normal in USA also
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#16 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 17:15

Just out of curiosity, if you play that:
1D - 2H = 5S-4+H below invite
1D - 2S = 5S-4+H invite

Does it change for passed hand ?
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#17 User is offline   gszes 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 17:35

change my hand to
AJxxxx
x
Qxxx
xx

and I would bid 4d

but here I think that risks missing 3n far too often
the extra queens convince me to bid

3d

this not only leaves 3n in the picture but might
also enable us to reach 4s far easier that a
direct jump to 4d.
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#18 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 18:00

View Postbluecalm, on 2012-March-12, 17:15, said:

Just out of curiosity, if you play that:
1D - 2H = 5S-4+H below invite
1D - 2S = 5S-4+H invite

Does it change for passed hand ?


no
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#19 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 18:01

View Postgszes, on 2012-March-12, 17:35, said:

change my hand to
AJxxxx
x
Qxxx
xx

and I would bid 4d

but here I think that risks missing 3n far too often
the extra queens convince me to bid

3d

this not only leaves 3n in the picture but might
also enable us to reach 4s far easier that a
direct jump to 4d.


Yes, but 4D shows a much better hand than 3D, so you risk missing game in general by bidding 3D instead of 4D.
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#20 User is offline   quiddity 

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Posted 2012-March-12, 21:10

Partner had x Axxx AKxxx Kxx. I tried the undiscussed 3H "splinter" and we had an amusing auction to 6D. Spades and trumps broke so all was well; at the other table the opponents opened 2S and played there.
We hadn't discussed the meaning of 3H even by an unpassed hand; I'm not sure if that makes the bid more or less egregious here.
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