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How do you play these sequences?

#1 User is offline   lamford 

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Posted 2012-January-22, 15:44

a)1/ - (Dble) - 1NT - (Pass) - 3/
b)1/ - (Dble) - Redble - (Pass) - 3/
and a typical minimum and maximum would be most welcome.
I prefer to give the lawmakers credit for stating things for a reason - barmar
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#2 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-January-22, 16:11

a) Game-forcing, as in an uncontested auction.

b) 5-5 or 6-5, non-forcing. Crowhurst gave the example of AQ973 J2 KQJ64 5, and implied that adding an ace would make it too strong. I think I'd have better or longer spades than that - eg AQxxxx x KQJxx x.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#3 User is offline   lamford 

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Posted 2012-January-22, 16:46

So with AQxxxx x KQJxx x you would presumably just rebid 2 after 1S - (Dble) - 1NT - (Pass)?
I prefer to give the lawmakers credit for stating things for a reason - barmar
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#4 User is offline   jallerton 

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Posted 2012-January-22, 16:52

a) I play 1NT as conventional with some partners, but when 1NT is natural, it shows about the same strength as an uncontested Acol 1NT response (though the lower limit is a smidgen stronger, as partner will be getting another bid now anyway). Ergo, opener's rebids are the same as after 1M-Pass-1NT-Pass. In the absence of an agreement to the contrary, a jump in a new suit over 1NT is normally played as natural and game forcing. So the minimum would be about an 18-count if 5-4 in the two suits; a little less in terms of high cards if more distributional. The maximum would be a hand just short of a 2 Opener, although if playing Acol Twos, those hand types are obviously also excluded.

b) I agree with Gnasher. In this sequence, Opener can Pass and bid his suit on the next round to show a stronger version, but as even a direct bid of 2/ would tend to suggest 5/5, a direct 3/ bid sounds like 6/5. I suspect this should be forcing, or only passable with a complete misfit.
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#5 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 03:43

View Postlamford, on 2012-January-22, 16:46, said:

So with AQxxxx x KQJxx x you would presumably just rebid 2 after 1S - (Dble) - 1NT - (Pass)?


Yes.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#6 User is offline   benlessard 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 06:26

AQxxxx x KQJxx x

This is an obvious jump shift for me. Parnet free 1Nt is 8-10 not 6-10
From Psych "I mean, Gus and I never see eye-to-eye on work stuff.
For instance, he doesn't like being used as a human shield when we're being shot at.
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#7 User is offline   lamford 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 06:29

View Postbenlessard, on 2012-January-23, 06:26, said:

AQxxxx x KQJxx x

This is an obvious jump shift for me. Parnet free 1Nt is 8-10 not 6-10

I would as well; but I think it is right to play both sequences as forcing for one round, on the grounds of frequency. Otherwise the opener has to choose between a non-forcing 2C and a game-forcing 3C with any 5-5. True, the same problem occurs after 1M-1NT, but the double means that partner is more likely to have a hand between a non-forcing 2C and a game-forcing 3C than without the double.
I prefer to give the lawmakers credit for stating things for a reason - barmar
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#8 User is offline   benlessard 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 06:46

I think partner 1Nt is a very precise bid, with a nice 10 he can XX and with a bad 8 he can pass rather than bid 1nt. So I dont think opener need to have a 2.5 clubs or 2.5 diamonds bid. I see the possibility to use 2nt as artifical (since with the super rare 18-19 bal you can bid 3c/3Nt). Anyway I dont remeber last time ive got a tough bidding problems on these sequence so I wouldnt lose too much energy on them.

Also much more important is to play transfers over takeout doubles. Its much better IMO
From Psych "I mean, Gus and I never see eye-to-eye on work stuff.
For instance, he doesn't like being used as a human shield when we're being shot at.
I happen to think it's a very noble way to meet one's maker, especially for a guy like him.
Bottom line is we never let that difference of opinion interfere with anything."
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#9 User is offline   benlessard 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 06:48

double post
From Psych "I mean, Gus and I never see eye-to-eye on work stuff.
For instance, he doesn't like being used as a human shield when we're being shot at.
I happen to think it's a very noble way to meet one's maker, especially for a guy like him.
Bottom line is we never let that difference of opinion interfere with anything."
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#10 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 07:54

View Postlamford, on 2012-January-23, 06:29, said:

I would as well; but I think it is right to play both sequences as forcing for one round, on the grounds of frequency.

Is that because you, like Benlessard, play the 1NT response as 8-10? Or are you saying that you play the 1NT response as in an uncontested auction, but think opener's rebids should be different?
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#11 User is offline   lamford 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 08:30

View Postgnasher, on 2012-January-23, 07:54, said:

Is that because you, like Benlessard, play the 1NT response as 8-10? Or are you saying that you play the 1NT response as in an uncontested auction, but think opener's rebids should be different?

I would play it as stronger than normal, which I thought was standard, perhaps g7-10. But unconnected with that I think that opener's rebids of 3 minor should only be forcing one round after the double. The majority of opener's hands will be in the 12-17 range, and it seems wrong to have to bid 2C with 5-4 and 5-5 of a very wide range. I would therefore suggest that 3C should be forcing for one round, perhaps 5-5 16+.
I prefer to give the lawmakers credit for stating things for a reason - barmar
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#12 User is offline   lamford 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 09:01

View Postbenlessard, on 2012-January-23, 06:46, said:

Also much more important is to play transfers over takeout doubles. Its much better IMO

I agree. What strength do you regard 1S-(Dble)-1NT*-(Pass)-3C when 1NT is a transfer to clubs?
I prefer to give the lawmakers credit for stating things for a reason - barmar
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#13 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 10:31

View Postlamford, on 2012-January-23, 09:01, said:

I agree. What strength do you regard 1S-(Dble)-1NT*-(Pass)-3C when 1NT is a transfer to clubs?

It's a matter of agreement, and it depends on the definition of the 1NT bid and on what other raises are available. It's not sufficient simply to agree "transfers".
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#14 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 10:58

View Postgnasher, on 2012-January-23, 10:31, said:

It's a matter of agreement, and it depends on the definition of the 1NT bid and on what other raises are available. It's not sufficient simply to agree "transfers".


Do you have any suggestions, though, Andy? Recently I had AKxxx x xx Axxxx and bid 3. I don't think I can just accept the transfer with this hand, but I also feel there have to be limits to how wide-ranging this bid can be.
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#15 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 11:24

View PostVampyr, on 2012-January-23, 10:58, said:

Do you have any suggestions, though, Andy? Recently I had AKxxx x xx Axxxx and bid 3. I don't think I can just accept the transfer with this hand, but I also feel there have to be limits to how wide-ranging this bid can be.

Without discussion, I would just bid 2 when I would have passed a free 2 bid, and make whichever bid I would have made otherwise.
Your example hand is way too powerful for 3 IMO. Having this hand, I would first think of making a splinter with 3, then realize that this is natural. So I would bid 4 instead.
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#16 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 11:32

It depends upon how strong you play the transfer, but it helps if you can use 2NT as a raise.

Playing the transfer as constructive, I play
- Completion shows a weak notrump or similar
- 3 shows a weak notrump with four-card support
- 2NT shows an unbalanced raise, or 18-19 balanced with support
- Others are as after an Acol-style two-over-one response, ie new suits are forcing but not promising extras, jumps are splinters, etc

If the transfer includes competitive hands, the meanings should be more like what you would do after a one-level response: 2NT is natural and invitational; 3 is invitational; new suits are probably best played as non-forcing.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#17 User is offline   lamford 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 11:32

View Postcherdano, on 2012-January-23, 11:24, said:

Without discussion, I would just bid 2 when I would have passed a free 2 bid, and make whichever bid I would have made otherwise.
Your example hand is way too powerful for 3 IMO. Having this hand, I would first think of making a splinter with 3, then realize that this is natural. So I would bid 4 instead.

I don't think 3H is natural. In less avant garde methods, 1S-(Dble)-2C-(Pass)-2H is surely a one-round force, which makes 3H a splinter. The same logic applies to 2D and 3D.
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#18 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 11:45

This thread is cluttered already with different situations; sometime in a different one I would like to see discussion of opener's continuations after transfers over 1MX. Gnasher started it here, but there are surely some more complete theories to explore.

Why don't I start a thread then? For the moment, I have having difficulty establishing conditions for an OP which others can live with, where challenge of the premise doesn't become the focus.
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#19 User is offline   lamford 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 11:55

View Postaguahombre, on 2012-January-23, 11:45, said:

This thread is cluttered already with different situations; sometime in a different one I would like to see discussion of opener's continuations after transfers over 1MX. Gnasher started it here, but there are surely some more complete theories to explore.

Why don't I start a thread then? For the moment, I have having difficulty establishing conditions for an OP which others can live with, where challenge of the premise doesn't become the focus.

Yes that would be good. I would suggest something like:

1H-Double-1S = natural, F1R
1H-Double-Redble = g9+, 2 or fewer spades
1M-Double-1NT = clubs, constructive
1M-Double-2C = diamonds, constructive
1M-Double-2D = hearts, constructive
1M-Double-2H = good raise to 2S
1M-Double-2S = weak raise to 2S

Somewhat selfishly, these are our methods, so I would welcome opinions on continuations.
I prefer to give the lawmakers credit for stating things for a reason - barmar
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#20 User is offline   lamford 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 11:58

duplicate sorry
I prefer to give the lawmakers credit for stating things for a reason - barmar
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