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How to bid slam. A hand from partnership bidding.

#1 User is offline   Orla 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 05:32

I was holding this hand when my partner opened 2NT (20 - 21HCP)
K 7
K J 5
T 6
K J T 7 6 3

I considered the possibility of a slam in clubs. We have a maximum of 32 HCP. It makes for sure if I am declarer.

P is holding:
A J 3
4 2
A K Q J 9
A Q 4

We do play 4-way transfer.

So, is there any way of bidding to get to slam - if so, how? Or shall we just chalk it up to one that got away?
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#2 User is offline   dwar0123 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 05:39

2nt-4(gerber)-4nt(3 aces)-6nt or 6 depending if its mp's or imps(and how much you like the idea of the lead coming into all your kings).
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#3 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 05:43

Here is something from the 2006 ACBL Bulletin... in it's unmodified form :

2NT - 3S! = relay to 3NT
3NT - ?? then:
........... Pass = to play ( Needed since direct 3N is major 44 )
........... 4C = slam try in clubs
........... 4D = slam try in diam
........... 4H = h splinter, both minors
........... 4S = s splinter, both minors
........... 4N = invitational to 6N
........... 5N = forcing to 6N, invitational to 7N
Don Stenmark
TWOferBRIDGE
"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall

" Did someone mention relays? " .... Zelandakh

K-Rex to Mikeh : " Sometimes you drive me nuts " .
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#4 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 06:03

First of all I would value the South hand as 22, not that this changes much. Given you specify 4 suit transfers you presumably have to start 2NT - 3; 4 unless South has some other way of super-accepting. After that the simplest course is for North to ask for key cards with 4. The trouble is that it is played from the wrong hand so a misplaced AQ or missing AK means trouble.

A slightly imaginative alternative would be to start with 3. You do not say whether this would be normal or puppet Stayman (or even Baron) but I presume there is some way of showing a slam try in clubs afterwards. This would allow you to right-side.

Of course with other methods there are different options. Ironically, my preferred methods would begin 1 - 1; 1NT and therefore it is impossible for me to reach the top spot on this hand.
(-: Zel :-)
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#5 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 06:20

2NT-3= I´d like to play slam in clubs, what do you think?
4 = I like your idea


Sounds like a good start, actually opener could bid 4 rather than 4 because he really really likes the idea and has good diamonds or control or whatever partner needs in diamonds plus a maximum, and he even might protect the heart lead by letting partner declare, althou this is a bit subtle for B/I.

Then you cuebid hearts and end up with whatever bid you have to check that there aren´t 2 keycars missing and settle for 6.

If you didn´t bid it at the table then perhaps you have a slightly wrong concept about transfering to minors over 2NT opening, what was your bidding?
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#6 User is online   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2012-January-23, 06:55

I would treat the opener as too good to open a 20-21 2N.

I would also be bidding 6 with the club hand opposite 2N unless there were 2 aces or an ace and the Q missing.

2-3-3-3N-4-4(Keycard)-4(0/3)-4(Q?)-5(yup+K)-6N would be my auction I think.

If you open 2N, then I play a variant of what two4bridge posted, but playing straight 4 suit transfers:

2N-3-4(accept with good )-4N(keycard)-5(0/3)-5(Q?)-5N(yes+K)-6/6N

Which would wrongside the contract.
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