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Undiscussed

#1 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2012-January-20, 00:25

1 - (1) - 3....

is??
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#2 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2012-January-20, 03:30

...a splinter.
(-: Zel :-)
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#3 User is offline   Cthulhu D 

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Posted 2012-January-20, 04:54

If you have an agreement for the what 3 means in the auction (1) - 3 I might read it as that - a couple of different inexperienced partners I've played with have tried that one (and after the first time I fielded it), but otherwise I'd guess a splinter yeah.

With undiscussed actions it helps to know how your partner things more than what the 'standard' meaning is, unless you know he knows that you know that he knows (sic) what the 'standard' meanings are.
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#4 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2012-January-20, 06:14

splinter but transfer to 3NT is an interesting treatment (that I've never tried, nor have I ever seen in action) suggested by jlogic, at least in the case of 1m-(1M).
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
      George Carlin
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#5 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2012-January-20, 06:17

splinter
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#6 User is offline   fromageGB 

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Posted 2012-January-20, 08:24

Undiscussed as stated, a splinter, and even though I prefer transfers, I do not want this to be a transfer to 3NT. Splinters are more important. If I wanted to play in NT, I certainly want the overcaller to be on lead and to lead away from his hand, but I can quite happily X, then raise to 3NT.
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#7 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-January-20, 08:35

View PostfromageGB, on 2012-January-20, 08:24, said:

I do not want this to be a transfer to 3NT. Splinters are more important.

You could have both by swapping 3 and 3NT. That would, of course, lose the ability to bid 3NT (whatever you play it as) opposite the splinter.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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