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2 part bidding question

#1 User is offline   rduran1216 

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Posted 2012-January-13, 15:27




Your call? If your first call is 1 diamond, please answer the follow up





Now what?


No xyz, 1H could be bid with a 2434 hand. 1S here tends to show spades, with 2S being an artificial GF
Aaron Jones Unit 557

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#2 User is offline   hrothgar 

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Posted 2012-January-13, 15:33

I'd bid 2NT over 1

If I was forced to start with 1, I need to know whether the 1 rebid promises an unbalanced hand
Alderaan delenda est
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#3 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2012-January-13, 15:35

xyz is quite popular here as is walsh(5c and 4h) so if permitted I plan to bid 2c which forces 2d then 3c invite.

If I am not playing any of that I will start with 1nt over 1c.
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#4 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-January-13, 15:35

(1) 1

(2) If 1 promised an unbalanced hand, 3
Otherwise, if 1 is non-game-forcing FSF, 1
Otherwise, I'm not playing.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#5 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2012-January-13, 15:35

You don't tell us what system we are playing, so I can't give a definite answer.
Does 1H promise 5 clubs? Or does it promise either 4414 or 5 clubs? What would 2S mean by me over 1H (I used to play 2S as showing invitational values and 3 clubs)?

Assuming partner showed an unbalanced hand and hence 5 clubs, 3C looks normal.
I've never played a style where partner could be, say, 3=4=3=3 and I've no idea how to bid if we do.
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#6 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2012-January-13, 16:10

The problem is to guess the system, lets see:
I obviously bid 2 over 1, if partner bids 2 then he will play 2 way checkback so 3 then, if he passes then that´s fine as well.
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#7 User is offline   rduran1216 

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Posted 2012-January-13, 16:10

View PostFrancesHinden, on 2012-January-13, 15:35, said:

You don't tell us what system we are playing, so I can't give a definite answer.
Does 1H promise 5 clubs? Or does it promise either 4414 or 5 clubs? What would 2S mean by me over 1H (I used to play 2S as showing invitational values and 3 clubs)?

Assuming partner showed an unbalanced hand and hence 5 clubs, 3C looks normal.
I've never played a style where partner could be, say, 3=4=3=3 and I've no idea how to bid if we do.


edited for clarity, pick up partnership with no real detailed agreements.
Aaron Jones Unit 557

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#8 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2012-January-13, 16:12

I´m a bit curious to the reasons that made you post in this forum, but just a bit.
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#9 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2012-January-13, 17:33

1D then 2C
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#10 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2012-January-14, 05:47

View Postrduran1216, on 2012-January-13, 15:27, said:


Now what?


No xyz, 1H could be bid with a 2434 hand. 1S here tends to show spades, with 2S being an artificial GF


If I'm playing Walsh, doesn't 2H show this hand now? (As I said I've never played a style where 1H could be 2434 so I don't really know what to do)
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#11 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2012-January-14, 11:46

1D, then 4th suit (i.e. 1S).
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#12 User is offline   phil_20686 

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Posted 2012-January-14, 11:47

EDIT: This is obviously meant to be after 1c-1d-1h:

i normally play 1N= 8-11 in this sequence.

If weaker you always have a suitable hand for pass or 2c.
The physics is theoretical, but the fun is real. - Sheldon Cooper
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#13 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2012-January-14, 12:08

View Postgnasher, on 2012-January-13, 15:35, said:

(1) 1

(2) If 1 promised an unbalanced hand, 3
Otherwise, if 1 is non-game-forcing FSF, 1
Otherwise, I'm not playing.

View PostFrancesHinden, on 2012-January-13, 15:35, said:

Assuming partner showed an unbalanced hand and hence 5 clubs, 3C looks normal.
I've never played a style where partner could be, say, 3=4=3=3 and I've no idea how to bid if we do.

This combination reflects my opinion.

Re: Frances' question about the 2H raise in Walsh ---could be, but our agreement for 2H is different. We have reworked many Walsh/Hardy agreements to fit our mold, and it becomes a bit of a blur how much is true Walsh or Hardy. Of course, they did the same from edition to edition.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#14 User is offline   gszes 

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Posted 2012-January-14, 14:07

I would always start with 1d.

since 1s "tends" to show spades that means future
bidding has to take into consideration we might
not have spades---fine with me

1s.

w/o this agreement in spades I prefer to downplay this
hand a bit (especially at MP) and I would now bid
(though I wish I didnt have to)
2h <if p cannot now bid 2n or 3n NT is unlikely to be the right spot>
(unless I knew for sure the 1h bid showed an
unbalanced hand) in which case I like my hand more
and would bid 3c.

In all cases if we are to arrive in game I want p to declare
if possible.


I do not like 2n over 1c for the following reasons

1. opps will have at least 7 if not 8/9 spades and with
no stopper we are probably wrong siding nt.

2. Taking 1 into consideration the 2n bid makes it
difficult for p to show a weaker but distributional hand
when we are anything but sure nt is right.

3. opposite a vast majority of balanced 14 counts 3n
is going to be difficult to make p will need at least
3 dia or long clubs to give us a chance and bidding
1d gives us the best chance to find this stuff out.
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