[mgoetze]

Context: You are playing 2/1 with a 15-17 NT and open all 5332s with a 5-card major 1NT or 2NT if they are in range. After a 1M opening, a 2♣ rebid shows clubs or a strong hand (say 16+).

So you have the sequences

1M-1NT-2NT
1M-1NT-2♣-2x-2NT

one of which (probably the latter) shows 18-19 balanced. What's the best use for the other one?

[han]

I play 1M - 1NT - 2NT as GF with any 5-5 or with 6-4 and a minor. 3C asks, and then 3D = 5-5 with a minor, 3H = 5-5 majors, 3S = 6-4 with clubs, 3NT = 6-4 with diamonds. My gf plays that it only shows 5-5 or 6-4 with a minor.

You need to put in some GF hands imo because you cannot describe all hand types after 2C.. 2D.

What you put in 2NT after 2C - 2D depends on the rest of the system. I wouldn't recommend playing natural follow-ups after 2C - 2D, there is too much to tell.

[paulg]

There is also the sequence 1M-1NT-3NT to throw into the mix too.

We play that 1M-1NT-2NT is game-forcing with 6M4m.

1M - 1NT - 2C - 2D - 3NT shows 18-19 balanced (without 3 hearts after 1S opener)

1M - 1NT - 2C - 2D - 2NT shows 5M4m, mainly natural continuations

1M - 1NT - 2C - 2D - 3m shows 5M5m

1S - 1NT - 2C -2D - 3H shows 5332 or 6322/6331 with three hearts

1M - 1NT - 3NT shows 18-19 balanced with six-card major

[aguahombre]

For us old-fashioned types who can't even spell Gazzilli:

1M-1N (truly forcing)
2N..shows the 18-19 5-3-3-2

1M-1N
2x-2y (or 2 of my major showing only two of them)
2NT...shows that the 2x suit was really 4 in length, and I have 16-17 ish HCP

1M-1N
3N..shows 18-19 with six of my major (6-3-2-2, or maybe 6-3-3-1 with a stiff ace or King).

This leaves Jump shifts to be unbalanced hands or very strong 5-4's.


No claim here as to what is "best" to use.

[Elianna]

mgoetze, on 2011-August-24, 15:43, said:

Context: You are playing 2/1 with a 15-17 NT and open all 5332s with a 5-card major 1NT or 2NT if they are in range. After a 1M opening, a 2♣ rebid shows clubs or a strong hand (say 16+).

So you have the sequences

1M-1NT-2NT
1M-1NT-2♣-2x-2NT

one of which (probably the latter) shows 18-19 balanced. What's the best use for the other one?

Adam and I have a different structure of Gazilli when we open 1S vs. when we open 1H (and not just with 2NT).

When we open 1S 2NT shows 5-5 GF.

When we open 1H, 2NT is artificial forcing showing 6+H and a 4+ minor with about 14-16 hcp 5 losers. Over this, 3C asks (3D=diams 3H=clubs).

Before we switched to have a different structure after 1S opening, we used the second meaning for 2NT.

[marcD]

We use 2NT to show 6M4♣ (14)15-17 HCP which we cannot describe otherwise in our version of Gazzilli (1M-1x-2♣,2M-3M being for instance 6 cards+ strong GF); all strong hands (including bal 18-19) go through 2♣. 1M-1x-2♣-2♦-2NT is GF semi-balanced (16+)

[Free]

I use 1M-1X-2NT as a GF hand with 6M-4m. After this, 3♣ is a relay and opener shows his minor and the difference between min and max.

1M-1X-2♣-2♦-2OM* shows 16+ balanced with 3OM, can be 5332 (1♥-1NT-2♣-2♦-2♠ shows 4♠).
1M-1X-2♣-2♦-2NT shows 16+ balanced without 3OM (can be 5422, so 16+).

(*) this is the standard way. It's also possible to overload 1M-1X-2♣-2♦-2OM to be able to show more hand types. For example, you can hardly call it efficient if you have to bid 1M-1X-2♣-2♦-3M to show a GF hand with 6+M (any quality).