Bypass rule: If a player bypasses a natural notrump bid to make a nonforcing bid, then later bids notrump uninvited over an opposing bid, that notrump bid is unusual (showing additional distribution, not offering to play in notrump).
Yesterday I was playing on BBO and my partner bid 2♣ then later compete with 3NT, so I follow the rule and conclude that because he bypassed 1NT so 3NT must be unusual showing a distribution hand with ♣ and ♥. But actually my partner had ♠A54 ♥2 ♦A65 ♣AKQ873, he just wanted to make 3NT with a little help with my hand.
So
1.How do you generally treat this 3NT as?
2.Can anyone explain a little bit more(maybe with example) about bypass rule? I don't quite understand.
3. How would you bid my partner's hand?