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Bid these two Using 2/1

#1 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2011-June-21, 06:10



Teams, no opposing bidding.

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#2 User is offline   lowerline 

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Posted 2011-June-21, 07:16


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#3 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2011-June-21, 08:17

View Postlowerline, on 2011-June-21, 07:16, said:



I'd start out the same as lowerline where 1S! = 4th suit GF and may NOT have 4 cards .

That's where we part company.
West won't have to "jump" to 3D on his next turn; 2D will suffice in a GF atmosphere.

Now, West -- with slam intentions -- will get excited if East raises to 3D.
Hopefully, the pair can finds out about the lack of a Sp-Ctrl during cuebidding and settles in 5D.

3NT -- although makeable here -- may be hard to reach.... even with the greater bidding space .
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#4 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2011-June-21, 13:30

using xyz and walsh

1c=1d
1h(unbal)=3d(nat, gf, long d)
3s?=3nt
p


1s for me would be nat, 4s, 5+d and gf
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#5 User is offline   jcrosa 

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Posted 2011-June-22, 09:15

After 1- 1 - 1, in standard 2/1 (let's leave the Walsh issue aside), responder has no direct way to show a slammish hand with long . So, a FSF bid will have to be used.

Scenario A:
1 is natural (and forcing 1 round, at least) and 2 is FSF (and GF). The next 3 bids would surely be 2 - 3 - 3. Next bid by opener should probably be 3, showing some doubt about 3NT. (Some might argue that, having avoided a NT rebid after 2, jack doubleton is now enough to bid 3NT; I disagree, but with queen doubleton it would be sensible). After 3, responder might place the final contract in 3NT. Has he done full justice to his hand? Wouldn't he bid the same way with a king less, say? Well, the fact is that his partner's bidding so far is not slam-positive (no belated support, likely no high honor). Giving up on slam is not absurd.

Scenario B:
1 is FSF (and GF, to simplify the analysis) and 2 is natural and GF. Bidding might proceed: 1 - 2 - 2 (no need to jump if GF; the jump in this case should be reserved for a self-sufficient suit) - 3 (2 card support is adequate at this point, and more so being J9; the 2 rebid tends to deny 3 card support) - and now what? One thing is certain, responder will not bid 3NT right away. He might do it after 3 (1st or 2nd roud control) - 3 (ambiguous, "last-train to 3NT"). Over 3, opener might also bid 4 as a suggestion to play there in the (expected) Moysian fit - partner will correct to diamonds if lacking 3 (good) hearts. If instead opener choses to bid 4, denying a control, responder knows there is no slam, and let's hope he has the means to stop in a makable game (4NT or 4).
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#6 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2011-June-22, 09:20

Lowerline's auction seems quite ok to me. Maybe opener can pull to 5 if he doesn't fancy the moysian.
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#7 User is offline   tolvyrj 

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Posted 2011-June-22, 15:39

Old school way; 1- 1- 1- 1 FSF- 2 four + clubs, no stopper in - 2 nacking- 3 Nt ive got a jack of and no 3 card . 3 instead of 3 Nt would have denied J of or anything like that.
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#8 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2011-June-22, 19:08

View Posttolvyrj, on 2011-June-22, 15:39, said:

Old school way; 1- 1- 1- 1 FSF- 2 four + clubs, no stopper in - 2 nacking- 3 Nt ive got a jack of and no 3 card . 3 instead of 3 Nt would have denied J of or anything like that.


2 over 4th sf does not deny stopper yet.
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