Hand evaluation question in Precision
#1
Posted 2004-September-19, 23:41
Assume you have agreed:
1) to play Precision AND
2) over 1M opening you use
- 1NT forcing and
- 2/1 GF.
(I am sure the system you actually play is better than this , but please just skip the description of what you play to avoid the type of problem arrsen from this type of hand, just mention what you would bid using the abovementioned constraints- e.g. assume someone is pointing a gun at you forcing you to play this lousy system agreement )
Matchpoints, NS Vulnerable,
Dealer East
You are North and bidding goes
E S W N
p 1♠ p ?
You hold
♠3
♥J7
♦K98762
♣AT97
What do you bid ?
The only plausible bids allowed from system are 1NT (forcing) or pass.
No negative freebids or semipreemptive bids in minors available (again, please let's not discuss here how much other options would be good- let's just stick to the hand evaluation given only 1NT or pass as options ).
Thanks !!
#2
Posted 2004-September-20, 00:43
Pass is a little crazy, I may have good minor game or score. If 1NT was NF I would pass, but when I have 1NT-F1 I prefer to use this toy.
Stefan
#3
Posted 2004-September-20, 02:14
1NT: not good either. After pard's expected 2H or 2S, the diamonds are a bit weakish for a sign-off in 3D.
Anyway, this is matchpoints, and my feeling is that 1S just made or -1 is going to be a BAD score. Better go with the field and bid 1NT and sign-off in 3D.
#4
Posted 2004-September-20, 03:00
#5
Posted 2004-September-20, 03:45
#6
Posted 2004-September-20, 03:46
After
1♠:1NT(forcing)
Your partner bids 2♥.
Now what do you bid ?
ANY BID ABOVE 2 SPADES SHOWS INVITATIONAL VALUES, so you can only pass or bid 2 spades.
#7
Posted 2004-September-20, 03:53
I'm on a guess and I guess pass.
#8
Posted 2004-September-20, 03:56
Chamaco, on Sep 20 2004, 10:46 AM, said:
After
1♠:1NT(forcing)
Your partner bids 2♥.
Now what do you bid ?
ANY BID ABOVE 2 SPADES SHOWS INVITATIONAL VALUES, so you can only pass or bid 2 spades.
So we can't bid 3♦ signoff after a forcing 1NT??? Ok, now I really think someone is pointing a gun at your head
If this is the case, I wouldn't even start with 1NT. I'd probably pass or bid 3♦ if that's supposed to be weak (I guess not, but you never know with this system )
#9
Posted 2004-September-20, 04:19
Free, on Sep 20 2004, 09:56 AM, said:
Chamaco, on Sep 20 2004, 10:46 AM, said:
After
1♠:1NT(forcing)
Your partner bids 2♥.
Now what do you bid ?
ANY BID ABOVE 2 SPADES SHOWS INVITATIONAL VALUES, so you can only pass or bid 2 spades.
So we can't bid 3♦ signoff after a forcing 1NT??? Ok, now I really think someone is pointing a gun at your head
If this is the case, I wouldn't even start with 1NT. I'd probably pass or bid 3♦ if that's supposed to be weak (I guess not, but you never know with this system )
Assume a 2/1 is absolute GF (so bidding 2m and repeating 3m is not invitational).
I know not everyone plays that way (e.g. 2/1 in a minor followed by suit rebid may be only invitational), but I prefer that way. Anyway, just assume this (the gun is still pointing ).
Also assume that 1M-3m are NOT invitational with the minor, but conventional raises.
Then invitational hands with long minors have to go via 1NT forcing.
So if you can show the minor at the 2 level, it is a weak hand with long minor, but 1NT followed by 3m is invitational (otherwise you have no other way to show it)
#10
Posted 2004-September-20, 04:33
Chamaco, on Sep 20 2004, 01:19 PM, said:
So if you can show the minor at the 2 level, it is a weak hand with long minor, but 1NT followed by 3m is invitational (otherwise you have no other way to show it)
This treatment is almost unplayable.
When I bid a forcing NT, I am unable to predict whith certainty whether I will be able to show my minor at the two level, or alternatively, be forced to show it at the three level.
How am I expected to plan an intelligent auction?
#11
Posted 2004-September-20, 04:45
The possible senarios are in order of priority.
1. play a minor (probebly diamond) partscore.
2. play 1sp.
3. play higher contract in spade. (this is if partner holds 6 of them)
4. let them play heart.
number 3 is what drives me into bidding 1nt.
If we play 2sp and not better minor over 1nt with 5332 (uncommon) then ill pass instead.
#12
Posted 2004-September-20, 08:09
♠AQJxx
♥AKxx
♦x
♣Jxx
Will he jump to 3♥? And with
♠AQJ9xx
♥Kxx
♦x
♣KJx
will he jump to 3S?
The answer to this question will affect your bid, I think. And even if he will not jump around with these hands, how happy will you be to hear him rebid 2♥ over 1NT? Would you pass (hoping maybe to ruff a spade?). Would you take preference back to 2♠? Or would you try to retreat to 3♦ in a possible 6-1 or 6-0 contract missing an aweful lot of diamond spots?
Ok, I have to admit I am an aggressive player. But if my precision partner will leap with the hands above, I will pass. If he will not jump with those hands. I will bid 1NT and hope to land on my feet. If he bids 2C or 2D all will be well. If he bids 2S, I will let him play. If he bids 2NT, I will pass. The only response (if he isn't a leaper) that causes me any problems at all is 2H's.
As an aside, playing precision, have you considered playing 1NT as a lebehnsol like transfer? Not a command must bid 2C, partner with a really great hand and his own suit can show it instead. Or partner with a great club fit can refuse to bid 2C, and bid 2D instead (that is 2D by opener ACTUALLY shows a club suit). In this second case, if your suit is diamonds, you then pass 2D, if clubs, you can make a game try or signoff. This doesn't work well with 2/1 GF systems because of the wide range of the 1M opening bid, but is fun with precision. If you like, you can make all bids from 1NT to one less than Major opened transfers (the one under the major showing a great raise, direct raise weaker than normal). Opener can complete the transfer or rebid his suit with minimums. Can jump in transfer suit with fit.
Ben
#13
Posted 2004-September-20, 08:49
#14
Posted 2004-September-20, 09:59
#15
Posted 2004-September-20, 10:12
1S 1NT
3H = 55 or better, based on playing tricks, not points
1S 1NT
3S = 6 or 7 card suit, again based on playing tricks
With 5S+4H and 14-15 points you bid a simple 2H.
#16
Posted 2004-September-20, 10:32
whereagles, on Sep 20 2004, 12:12 PM, said:
1S 1NT
3H = 55 or better, based on playing tricks, not points
1S 1NT
3S = 6 or 7 card suit, again based on playing tricks
With 5S+4H and 14-15 points you bid a simple 2H.
Well.. if you define "classic precision" as what CC Wei invented, and described to the world in the first book ever written on precision. Then the jump shows points, and not 5-5 any. This I know because it is the first of four precision books I spent my hard earned money on (well, it is more like a pamphelet than a book, given it is so small and just thin cardboard-like cover... but it still is a book I guess).
Ben
#17
Posted 2004-September-20, 10:44
whereagles, on Sep 20 2004, 04:12 PM, said:
1S 1NT
3H = 55 or better, based on playing tricks, not points
1S 1NT
3S = 6 or 7 card suit, again based on playing tricks
With 5S+4H and 14-15 points you bid a simple 2H.
I won't argue what "classic" Precision is, but Whereagles' approach is more or less how I play it.
Jumpshifts to 3 level are distributional, at least 5-5, at most 51/2 losers, and put strong emphasis on values in the 2nd suit (1st suit could be so and so and we were forced to bid it by the system).
3 level Jump rebids are 5 1/2 losers with a very good suit.
#18
Posted 2004-September-20, 11:01
inquiry, on Sep 20 2004, 02:09 PM, said:
Hi Ben !!
Yes I am considering 1NT as xfer:
1NT = weak/strong xfer to clubs or shows a balanced hand. When the xfer is accepted, responder's 2M is NOT a weak preference (weak hand will just pass) but is GF with 3 card support.
2C= weak/strong xfer to D. After xfer acccepted, see above.
2D= good H raise or xfer to H (over 1S opening)
2H= bad H raise or good spade raise
and on this point here are other questions
Question 1
How to distinguish the invitational clkubs single suiter fronm the GF slammish single suiter (which wd also like to rebid 3 clubs)
Opps silent.
1♥:1NT(weak/strong xfer to clubs)
2♣:?
Now how do I distinguish between invitational and GF club single suiter ?
I do not like "faking a side 4 card suit"
2♦ should show GF with 5+ C and 4+ D
2♥ should show GF with 5+ C and 3+ H
2♠ should show GF with 5+ C and 4+ S
2NT should show 10-11 semibalanced (may have a 5 card clubs) ?
Now I have only one bid left (3C) overloaded for GF single suiters and invitational single suiters.
Question 2
How do I discriminate between BALANCED invitational hand and BALANCED GF , given that 1M:2NT is a conventional raise ?
E.g. if both bal. invitational hands and bal. GF go via the 1NT xfer (since all other bids are xfers), there will be a problem rebid.
One way to overcome this wd be to assume that:
1M:1NT = either weak/strong xfer to clubs OR balanced invitational
1M:2C= either weak/strong xfer to diams OR bal GF
What do you think ?
#19
Posted 2004-September-20, 11:02
Chamaco, on Sep 20 2004, 12:44 PM, said:
Which is why I phrased my answer as I did. I know some precison players who leap with 14-15 at their second chance. With those guys, I pass 1S (sure, they might leap in a minor but the risk of 3S or 3H is too graeat for me). And then I went on to say if my partner doens't leap around like this, I will bid 1NT.
Ben
#20
Posted 2004-September-20, 13:25
1S 1NT
3H
just because you have 14-15. It's bad strategy, as responder can have 7-8 points, thus commiting your side to a 3NT on 23-24 (possibly less) and a misfit.
Maybe your book was an embryonic version of CC Wei's precision?