inquiry, on Sep 20 2004, 02:09 PM, said:
As an aside, playing precision, have you considered playing 1NT as a lebehnsol like transfer? Not a command must bid 2C, partner with a really great hand and his own suit can show it instead. Or partner with a great club fit can refuse to bid 2C, and bid 2D instead (that is 2D by opener ACTUALLY shows a club suit).
Hi Ben !!
Yes I am considering 1NT as xfer:
1NT = weak/strong xfer to clubs or shows a balanced hand. When the xfer is accepted, responder's 2M is NOT a weak preference (weak hand will just pass) but is GF with 3 card support.
2C= weak/strong xfer to D. After xfer acccepted, see above.
2D= good H raise or xfer to H (over 1S opening)
2H= bad H raise or good spade raise
and on this point here are other questions
Question 1
How to distinguish the invitational clkubs single suiter fronm the GF slammish single suiter (which wd also like to rebid 3 clubs)
Opps silent.
1
♥:1NT(weak/strong xfer to clubs)
2
♣:?
Now how do I distinguish between invitational and GF club single suiter ?
I do not like "faking a side 4 card suit"
2
♦ should show GF with 5+ C and 4+ D
2
♥ should show GF with 5+ C and 3+ H
2
♠ should show GF with 5+ C and 4+ S
2NT should show 10-11 semibalanced (may have a 5 card clubs) ?
Now I have only one bid left (3C) overloaded for GF single suiters and invitational single suiters.
Question 2
How do I discriminate between BALANCED invitational hand and BALANCED GF , given that 1M:2NT is a conventional raise ?
E.g. if both bal. invitational hands and bal. GF go via the 1NT xfer (since all other bids are xfers), there will be a problem rebid.
One way to overcome this wd be to assume that:
1M:1NT = either weak/strong xfer to clubs OR balanced invitational
1M:2C= either weak/strong xfer to diams OR bal GF
What do you think ?
"Bridge is like dance: technique's important but what really matters is not to step on partner's feet !"