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Is this forcing? After a negative double

#21 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2011-May-26, 11:42

View PostfromageGB, on 2011-May-26, 10:45, said:

3
752
AKT6
AQJ97
If it was my style to open this hand 1 and heard
1 (1) X (2)
I would really like to bid 3 to play. If it was forcing, I would have to pass and take a poor result.

For me, not forcing. Could I not double if I had a forcing hand?

Why not 2NT for the minors? It makes more sense than 2NT natural in this auction. 3 would still be forcing.

If you really had a hand where 2NT natural was the best available call, you might as well bid 3NT.
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#22 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2011-May-26, 11:47

View Postgnasher, on 2011-May-26, 11:07, said:

If I played
1 1 dbl pass
2
as non-forcing and just a normal response to a take out double, I would also play
1 1 dbl 2
3
as non-forcing and just a normal competitive action facing a take out double.

Carefully worded and logical. The problem is that opener is not responding to a take-out double. He/she is bidding as if responder had initially bid 1S, or otherwise shown some number of spades. Though the double is not "penalty", it is not "takeout" for the unbid suits either. Rebidding a suit higher than the one opened, when the suit is not suggested by responder needs strength (reverse strength).
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#23 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-May-26, 11:49

View Postaguahombre, on 2011-May-26, 11:47, said:

Carefully worded and logical. The problem is that opener is not responding to a take-out double. He/she is bidding as if responder had initially bid 1S, or otherwise shown some number of spades. Though the double is not "penalty", it is not "takeout" for the unbid suits either. Rebidding a suit higher than the one opened, when the suit is not suggested by responder needs strength (reverse strength).

do you think gnasher doesn't know that?
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#24 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2011-May-26, 11:54

I don't know whether he does or not. But using the term "takeout double" in the post might create confusion for other readers.

What did your question contribute to the topic, Gwnn?
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#25 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-May-26, 12:08

View Postaguahombre, on 2011-May-26, 11:54, said:

I don't know whether he does or not. But using the term "takeout double" in the post might create confusion for other readers.

What did your question contribute to the topic, Gwnn?

I was referring to a post by Whereagles, who had already said that 2 would be "a normal response to a take out dbl". Sorry, I should have made that clearer.

Anyway, I just meant that if, as Phil said, "Some think [2 is] forcing, some don't", then logically some people should think 3 is non-forcing too.

Personally, I don't play the double as "takeout", I play it as "four spades" (except when I play it as something else).
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#26 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-May-26, 14:02

View Postaguahombre, on 2011-May-26, 11:54, said:

What did your question contribute to the topic, Gwnn?

I was merely wondering whether you thought gnasher really didn't know what a negative double was.

If you're not sure, that's fine, but if you're reasonably sure that he knows, then you should have thought about providing him gratuitous B/I explanations and tried to understand his post.

Hence in my little opinion your post was not very thoughtful and I think it makes sense to point this out.

just to clarify: I completely agree that 2 and 3 (in the two sequences we were discussing) should both be forcing and show reversing values.
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#27 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2011-May-26, 14:16

View Postaguahombre, on 2011-May-26, 11:54, said:

I don't know whether he does or not. But using the term "takeout double" in the post might create confusion for other readers.

What did your question contribute to the topic, Gwnn?

aquaman, you are wasting your time on BBF unless you can judge which posters are good and reasonable and which posters aren't.
The reputation system has its flaws but if you are really that clueless it wouldn't hurt to check the Reputation and User Rating of some of the frequent posters, it's apparently a better measure than your own impression.
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#28 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2011-May-26, 14:39

View PostfromageGB, on 2011-May-26, 10:45, said:

3
752
AKT6
AQJ97
If it was my style to open this hand 1 and heard
1 (1) X (2)
I would really like to bid 3 to play. If it was forcing, I would have to pass and take a poor result.

For me, not forcing. Could I not double if I had a forcing hand?

Partner rates to be short in , with some values or perfect shape he'll Dbl or bid 2NT and we'll reach a decent spot. So passing doesn't mean the auction is over.
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#29 User is offline   nige1 

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Posted 2011-May-26, 14:56

For cynics, a debate may be an opportunity for sarcastic one-line put-downs :(
But some participants state what they prefer and why :)
I'm coming round to the view that after 1 1, you should bid 1 with 4+. Hence double should say you are fixed. (I'm told there are even more cunning bidding schemes in this context).
Whatever double means, even if you treat 3 as forcing, you should take into account that partner may have decided to stretch with a shapely hand for example
xx - KQJxx AQxxxxx
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#30 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2011-May-26, 15:22

View Postcherdano, on 2011-May-26, 14:16, said:

aquaman, you are wasting your time on BBF unless you can judge which posters are good and reasonable and which posters aren't.
The reputation system has its flaws but if you are really that clueless it wouldn't hurt to check the Reputation and User Rating of some of the frequent posters, it's apparently a better measure than your own impression.

Well at least Gnasher himself responded to what I wrote objectively, and with the understanding that I was not demeaning anything...rather clarifying something. You, and gwnn apparently have some other agenda.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#31 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-May-26, 15:46

We are in a complicated conspiracy so you shouldn't even read our posts because we're obviously biased.
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#32 User is offline   Bbradley62 

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Posted 2011-May-26, 18:10

View Postcherdano, on 2011-May-26, 14:16, said:

The reputation system has its flaws but if you are really that clueless it wouldn't hurt to check the Reputation and User Rating of some of the frequent posters...

Isn't this very much like deciding how good a player is by seeing how many masterpoints he has?
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#33 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2011-May-26, 20:20

View PostBbradley62, on 2011-May-26, 18:10, said:

Isn't this very much like deciding how good a player is by seeing how many masterpoints he has?


Worse maybe. By how nice/friendly s/he looks to others. I got a reputation vote for a funny video. Some people get lots of reputation votes for their ironic comments.

I'd say follow posters who are someone in real life. Someone who signs with his/her real name and you can actually see them in a bulletin or something are worth following and hearing advice from. Someone who won a spot in the Bermuda Bowl is worth listening to, too.

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#34 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2011-May-26, 20:42

This topic alone is a proof of how BBF reputation system works. As usual the guy (in this topic Andy) who deserves an up vote for his contribution to the topic did not get an upvote but some others who got into it with each other, in a negative way did !
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#35 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2011-May-26, 21:27

Good point. I'll upvote you as a protest vote.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

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#36 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2011-May-27, 01:12

Wow, I totally disagree with gnasher for once.

I do not think it logically follows that if you play 2D as NF over 1C 1H X p , that 3D in this auction is NF. In the first auction you are forced to bid, and one might reasonably or not decide that 2D non forcing is reasonable because if partner has a club fit you can still play 3C which isn't a huge disaster, or 2D in a 7 card fit which isn't a huge disaster, and otherwise you start describing your hand better, and because if you have a strong hand with diamonds you can jump to 3D or cuebid 2H and still get to show diamonds and a strong hand. This also maintains the integrity of your 2C rebid which can still promise 6.

Over 2H, if you have a minimum hand with 4D and 5C, you can just pass and hope partner reopens X (or if you're 3145 you can X 2H). Bidding 3D now with a minimum not only forces you to 4C if you have no diamond fit but a club fit (which is much worse than playing 3C on the same type of hand), or 3D in a 7 card fit (much worse than 2D), but it also does not solve any problem of misdescribing your hand (you can still describe your hand fine after passing most of the time, sure they might bid 3H, but you are not forced to bid right now) and also isn't necessary to maintain the integrity of your 3C bid (3C still shows 6, since again you're not forced to bid).

Not only that, but it stops you from being able to ever describe a strong hand with diamonds and clubs below 3N, jumping to 4D obviously takes you past 3N, and cuebidding 3H does not show diamonds.

I thought it was obvious that no matter what you think 2D should be over a pass, bidding 3D here must be a reverse. I mean where does it stop, if they had jumped to 3H is 4D "logically" non forcing because 2D would have been over a pass? I don't buy this logic.
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#37 User is offline   fromageGB 

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Posted 2011-May-27, 04:30

View PostJLOGIC, on 2011-May-27, 01:12, said:

... (his comments)

OK, this is a pretty convincing argument for me, and if I am allowed to change my mind, I am now a convert. If this sequence comes up in a scratch partnership (partnership methods are different) I will treat the forced bid of 2 (over 4th seat pass) as not forcing, and a free bid of 3 (over 4th seat 2) as forcing. I hope my scratch partner will do the same.

This forum is useful, and I appreciate the efforts some people put into their explanations. Thanks.
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#38 User is offline   fromageGB 

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Posted 2011-May-27, 04:46

View Postnige1, on 2011-May-26, 14:56, said:

I'm coming round to the view that after 1 1, you should bid 1 with 4+. Hence double should say you are fixed. (I'm told there are even more cunning bidding schemes in this context).

I think I agree with this. After all, in partnerships' transfer walsh methods, we play 1 (1) X as 4 or 5 spades, anything less than game values, and it works OK with use of support double.

So if a natural 1 may be 4 or 5, would a double say "I have biddable values (7+?), but less than 4 spades, hearts not good enough for 1NT, and insufficient clubs to support you immediately?"
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#39 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2011-May-27, 04:55

View PostfromageGB, on 2011-May-27, 04:30, said:

OK, this is a pretty convincing argument for me, and if I am allowed to change my mind, I am now a convert. If this sequence comes up in a scratch partnership (partnership methods are different) I will treat the forced bid of 2 (over 4th seat pass) as not forcing, and a free bid of 3 (over 4th seat 2) as forcing. I hope my scratch partner will do the same.

This forum is useful, and I appreciate the efforts some people put into their explanations. Thanks.


I actually think 2D should be a reverse over the X (as others have alluded to, that topic has come up a lot, so you can see my long rambling thoughts on it in other threads), however I can see why it is debatable and why some people might prefer to play it as non forcing, and I do not think that it logically follows that those people must also take 3D as NF by the same logic. It seems perfectly rational to me to take 2D over a pass as NF and 3D over a 2H bid as forcing, it does not have to be one or the other.
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#40 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-May-27, 05:01

At the risk of writing another unwanted post in support of gnasher, I don't think he wrote that the two treatments logically follow from each other. He merely wrote that he would play 3 as NF if he played 2 as NF.
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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