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1-5-1-6

#1 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2011-May-11, 08:55

I'm not sure how to bid this hand.

Matchpoints, all vul.

x
AKJxx
x
Q109xxx

1D - 1H
2D - ??

Do you agree with 1H or would you start with a gameforcing 2C? What do you do after 2D?
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#2 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2011-May-11, 09:02

I think I agree with 1H and would pass now.
If there was no way to invite after 1D 1H 1S showing H+C then there is a much stronger case for 2C.
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#3 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2011-May-11, 09:41

It will be very hard for partner to have 3 even if you only raise with 4 cards. Pass and then reopen with 3 is a strong option.

I expected the opponents to bid spades already that's why I would always start with 1, so that I can hear a support double and jump to game.

3 will gather 3NT from partner most likelly, and our game prospects are poor whatever the strain, so as Arend I think pass now is best.
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#4 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2011-May-11, 09:46

As our auction denies Spades, Pass and reopen 3C.
D-single puts this hand just shy of take a second bid.
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#5 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2011-May-11, 09:51

given the auction so far partner does not have a 4 card biddable suit, does not have 4, So is it significantly more probable that he has 3 than 3? If you believe so; take your last probable positive score and pass.
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#6 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2011-May-11, 11:15

Super easy pass.
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#7 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2011-May-12, 04:33

You don't have a way to show this type of hand now, so I guess you have to pass. Opps have a bucketload of spades anyway and if they bid them, you might be able to show the clubs later, say

1 pass 1 pass
2 pass pass 2
pass pass 3

I'm not afraid of bidding clubs because after pard bypassed spades, we have 100% certainty of a fit somewhere.
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#8 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2011-May-12, 12:18

Partner had AKQ xxx KQxxxx J, the cards lie favorably so you can make 6H.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#9 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2011-May-12, 13:09

huh.. tell pard to rebid 3?
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#10 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-May-12, 13:28

I think he should bid 2 rather than 2 (though 1 is an option too). If you're going to understate your values, it's better to do it with a bid that shows a fit rather than one that doesn't, because with a marginal hand partner is more likely to move.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#11 User is offline   menggq 

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Posted 2011-May-12, 18:24

where is ?obviously opps hv 9 cards at least.since opps hv suit FIT we should hv FIT in other suit.that's why i wd like to bid 3 even if 3 is forcing and overbid in HCP view(based on good hand partern and must be FIT in some suit),i think the contract will be 4 or 5 more likely.
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#12 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2011-May-12, 18:34

 han, on 2011-May-12, 12:18, said:

Partner had AKQ xxx KQxxxx J, the cards lie favorably so you can make 6H.


Aces are overrated.
Hi y'all!

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#13 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2011-May-12, 18:39

As a nonexpert I find these unbal range hands difficult to bid.

At this point this makes me lean towards offshape 1nt openings. I fully grant this is imperfect and this hand is an extreme 1nt(14-16).
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#14 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2011-May-14, 17:13

 gnasher, on 2011-May-12, 13:28, said:

I think he should bid 2 rather than 2 (though 1 is an option too). If you're going to understate your values, it's better to do it with a bid that shows a fit rather than one that doesn't, because with a marginal hand partner is more likely to move.


Interesting comment. I see 2H as an option but I didn't really think that 2D understated the values. I thought it was a maximum but not something unusual. I get your comment, 2H may be more likely to get partner to act, especially when he has 5 hearts.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#15 User is offline   gszes 

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Posted 2011-May-15, 08:14

I'm not sure how to bid this hand.

Matchpoints, all vul.

x
AKJxx
x
Q109xxx

1D - 1H
2D - ??

Do you agree with 1H or would you start with a gameforcing 2C? What do you do after 2D?

pass = 1 the only reason it gets 1 is because there are a ton of worse bids that deserve
a zero (think 7d or 7s) and a host of others.

there is a huge amount of potential still left in this hand and to pass is just short of
dereliction of duty (ie knowingly passing p blackwood request). The potential misfit
does indeed inspire a sense of caution but that is all it does.

BID 2H

The heart suit is good enough to gather 3 maybe 4 tricks at the 2 level (if p passes) and
even more importantly it keeps the bidding open in case p had to slightly understate their
values.

Our potential is so good that games from 3n all the way to a slam at 6c are still plausible
Picture xxx Q AKxxxx AKx.

2h is indeed an underbid and it is the potential misfit that keeps us from bidding more
at this time. I would be happier with seeing a 2s bid (= 6) or a 3c bid (= 4) than
a pass.

2h = 9 (pass has to be right at least sometimes)
2s = 6 (not bad but would leave you poorly placed if p now bids 3n)
3c = 4 (just too agressive for the circumstances though not far off in value)
5c = 2 (WAG that has potential but you might too easily be burying a heart fit or missing 3n).
pass = 1 yes indeed sometimes this will work and it is probably a better MP
call than an IMP call.
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