[CSGibson]

---

OK, obviously this is a screwed up auction in that North gave the wrong number of keycards. What I would like to ask opinions on is the auction before 3N was bypassed. Specifically:

1) Do you agree with the decision to jump-shift, or do you think 1♠ would be a better call?

2) After the jump shift and the 3♣ call, do you agree with 3♦? Should this be a call indicating a problem in one of the red suits, naturalish, or indicating specifically a lack of stoppers in diamonds?

3) North intended his 3♠ call to suggest a possible strain. Is that what it should mean, or should it have inferences about the heart suit, also?

[Fluffy]

south bid keycard with a void and then complained that he got the wrong number from partner?

I agree with the jump shift, I play 4th suit by opener always natural or semi-natural unless its obviously a last train for 3NT. In this case its obviously semi-nat pinpointing a heart shortness. Although in a extreme case something 4126 is possible, but ingeneral it will be a 3 card suit.


3♠ shows a possible strain with heart weakness (or an advance cue if he reopens), 3NT is the bid with his KJ10 opposite shortness.

[wank]

i wouldn't force to game in the first place.

assuming i had, i don't see how fluffy's method for 3 diamonds on the 3rd round is very playable - what's opener meant to do with something like Axxx A xx AKQJxx? With the original hand I would just bid 3NT.

As responder, over 3D i would bid 3H trying for a suitable doubleton in opener's hand, planning to raise 3S to 4S to suggest playing a moysian.

[peachy]

1C-1H-2D-2H-2S-3C is how my partnership would begin. Alternately 1C-1H-1S.
With a misfit in hearts, South just should not GF. As to keycards, South is in no position to ask for keycards, it was a mistake to ask.

[TWO4BRIDGE]

Opener has shown his strength ( 18+ ) and shape ( 4s/5+c ) with his 2S! jump-shift.

So after Responder's 3C , Opener should just bid 3NT [ showing Diam-stop(s) and no extra strength ].
If Responder has a stronger hand, s/he will make a move.

[CSGibson]

Fluffy, on 2011-May-09, 02:44, said:

south bid keycard with a void and then complained that he got the wrong number from partner?

...


3♠ shows a possible strain with heart weakness (or an advance cue if he reopens), 3NT is the bid with his KJ10 opposite shortness.

I'm going to give both North & South's rationale for thier auctions, too:

North's auction was normal through 3♣, and he bypassed 3♥ because he thought opener had bid 3♦ to indicate a problem hand with no diamond stop. He thought the Moysian would play very well, since his hand could take ruffs in diamonds, and because his heart suit would prevent opener from being forced too many times.

South jump shifted because of the texture of the diamonds and spades. His 3♦ was meant as semi-natural, indicating a problem in one of the red suits. When partner didn't indicate a decent heart holding by bidding 3♥, South decided that North did not have heart wastage (including the ace of hearts), and decided to keycard.

[akhare]

1) Agree with JS because of suit texture
2) Don't agree with 3♦ because it overstates the suit and hand. A retreat to 3N seems better
3) 3♠ would be a probe for 3N / 4♠

[aguahombre]

TWO4BRIDGE, on 2011-May-09, 08:33, said:

Opener has shown his strength ( 18+ ) and shape ( 4s/5+c ) with his 2S! jump-shift.

So after Responder's 3C , Opener should just bid 3NT [ showing Diam-stop(s) and no extra strength ].
If Responder has a stronger hand, s/he will make a move.

akhare, on 2011-May-09, 10:32, said:

1) Agree with JS because of suit texture
2) Don't agree with 3♦ because it overstates the suit and hand. A retreat to 3N seems better
3) 3♠ would be a probe for 3N / 4♠

Both of these. 3D lit the fuse.

[Fluffy]

wank, on 2011-May-09, 06:46, said:

I don't see how fluffy's method for 3 diamonds on the 3rd round is very playable - what's opener meant to do with something like Axxx A xx AKQJxx?

There are dead hands for all methods I guess, with this hand you can bid 4♣ since its very suit-oriented, with similar hands you can bid 3♠ if you don't wanna bypass 3NT.

[whereagles]

There's a gadget called "2NT coup d'arret" after a reverse. That's used by responder to say he has a lousy hand in context. Without that gadget, bidding hands like this becomes difficult... South is trying for slam while North is trying for game. A mix up is inevitable.

[straube]

deleted

[mike777]

This seems like a simple reverse hand not jump shift hand.


1c=1h
2d=2h
2nt=3nt
p


I would not force to game with a misfit.

[straube]

mike777, on 2011-May-10, 08:21, said:

This seems like a simple reverse hand not jump shift hand.


1c=1h
2d=2h
2nt=3nt
p


I would not force to game with a misfit.

You're giving up on spades to show diamonds? Can't be right. I'd choose a 1S rebid over a 2D rebid.

[quiddity]

CSGibson, on 2011-May-09, 09:18, said:

North's auction was normal through 3♣, and he bypassed 3♥ because he thought opener had bid 3♦ to indicate a problem hand with no diamond stop.

I think it's best to assume that opener's third bid after jump-shifting is natural. The chances of having such a problem hand decrease as opener's hand becomes stronger. Also, on a problem hand with no clear direction at the third bid it's possible that opener would avoid jump-shifting at all.

I hate the idea of opener bidding 3NT with a heart void over partner's 3♣. He should finish describing his hand with 3♦ and let responder decide what to do. Here it's very obvious for responder to bid 3NT.

[tolvyrj]

Jump shift with 3 suiter aint my cup of tea, north may have a red 2 suiter and ♦ suit just bites the dust after 2 ♠.
After 3 ♠ i would have bid 3 nt; my cards aint that hot and prd hasnt bid anything really positive yet. But hey thats me

[Cyberyeti]

I think we'd bid the prosaic: (4 card+ club, 1♠ rebid shows a 5th club unless 4144)

1♣-1♥
1♠-2♣
2♦-3♥
3N

[dake50]

DQ off sets 6C- too bad!
C4-1 sets 6C also.
Two strikes, too little for this slam.
When did 1H show minimum? 3H over 3D? Nope.
When did 1C opener show misfit? 12th of never.

[han]

I'd plan to bid

1C - 1H
2D - 2H
2S
3S

with opener's hand, I think this shows 4-0-4-5.

[gszes]

perfectly good start hand is way strong enough to force to game.
1c 1h 2s 3c 3d 3h 3n the 3n confirms the 4144 or (more
likely) 4045 hand since there was zero reason to bid 3d if you
had dia stopped for nt purposes (principle of fast arrival).
Once we have shown our hand it is up to p to evaluate theirs.
Just becasue we are stronger does not mean we have to be
captain. Let the player who knows what to do next take charge.