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a few matchpoint decisions

#1 User is offline   quiddity 

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Posted 2011-May-05, 10:33

Matchpoints, average club field.

1. Q8xx Tx Tx AKQxx. r/r, LHO deals.
(p)-p-(1N)-p; (2!)-p-(2)-?
1NT = 12-14. 2 was alerted as non-forcing stayman (both majors).

2. x xxxx QTx KQJxx. r/w, RHO deals
(p)-p-(2)-p; (p)-?

3. Tx J9xxxx 8xxx x. r/r, RHO deals.
(1)-p-(1)-X; (1N)-p-(p)-X; (XX)-?
XX was "undiscussed".

4. Jx xx KQ9x K87xx. w/w, partner deals.
p-(1)-p-(1); 1-(2)-?
2 promised 4 card support.

5. Jxx Jx AQJTx Jxx. w/w, LHO deals.
(p)-1-(p)-1; (p)-1-(p)-?
Partner promises 5+ clubs.

Thanks!
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#2 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2011-May-05, 10:53

1. Does this mean that they have a guaranteed heart fit? If so I'd bid 3C, even though I hate my hand and the vulnerability.

2. Double.

3. The only thing that is clear is that partner has a strong hand. I'd bid 2H.

4. Double, easiest problem of the set.

5. 1NT. My first thoughts went to 3C and 2C but having thought more about it I think that 1NT is clearly best.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#3 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2011-May-05, 11:09

1. Should have acted the round before, even if that meant dbling. Now you're stuck. Normally LHO will have the 44 majors weak hand, but he can still have like 11 and a real invite bid. I would still play the odds and try 3 now. With trepidation.

2. MPs, huh? Dbl.

3. 2. If opps are bidding right pard has a singleton/void heart and diamonds seems like the only playable strain. If he happens to have spades he'll probably rescue himself anyway.

4. 2. Opps are very likely to raise to 3 and pard probably won't bid to the 3 level because he's a passed hand.

5. 3 seems canonical.
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#4 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2011-May-05, 11:47

1. Very difficult imo, I think I pass.
2. Pass imo.
3. 2 and I don't see any alternative actions
4. Double about what I should have for this.
5. Yeah, 1NT. 1 could be possible if it's 4th suit which is not forcing to game (so I could pass 1NT rebid). Playing in clubs doesnt looks too good if partner is 3-4-1-5 (his most likely shape in this auction).
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#5 User is offline   ahydra 

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Posted 2011-May-05, 16:25

1) I'd prob have bid 2C over 1NT... now I guess I've gotta pass since the 3 level looks too high?

2) Pass - perhaps it depends if you think your opponents are overabusing the vul, but that rubbish heart suit will probably end up trumps :(

3) 2H

4) Double - textbook example!

5) 3C is awful with all those jacks, but 2C is wimpish, so I agree with 1NT.

ahydra
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#6 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2011-May-05, 19:15

1. Pass. Why is everyone assuming they know the OP's methods over 1N? Maybe we couldn't bid a natural 2 before? (Who can?) The "NF" stayman I've run into simply means LHO doesn't have a GF. Its quite possible that LHO is either raising hearts, bidding spades or NT, in which case taking a call here is foolish.

2. Double. And loving it.

3. Shrug. At the table I might just bluff a pass and watch LHO squirm and pull. I've never heard of a 1N bidder making a strong xx here - it makes little sense to me. Is this the same pair on #1 that is playing weak NT's (I hope not).

4.Nervous x. Don't want to sell out to 2H. I'm probably creating a headache for my 5233 partner.

5. 2. Sorry but I think 1N is awful. How many diamonds do you think pard has?
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#7 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2011-May-06, 03:03

View PostPhil, on 2011-May-05, 19:15, said:

5. 2. Sorry but I think 1N is awful. How many diamonds do you think pard has?


If partner passes 1NT then I think that partner has 0-2 diamonds. He could be 2-4-2-5, 3-4-1-5 or 4-4-0-5, and he has about 11-14 HCP (although 15 is also possible, and perhaps 10 when he has a nice 4-4-0-5). Neither opponent could overcall in a major, so let's say that neither opponent has a 6-card major or at least an 8-count and a 5-card major.

I'm going to run a double dummy simulation with these specifications to see how 1NT and 2C compare. I don't claim that this will prove anything, but I hope it will be interesting at least.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#8 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2011-May-06, 03:27

1NT makes 86% of the time, 2C makes 93% of the time.

Out of 400 hands, 1NT beats 2C 171 times, loses 159 times and equals 70 times.

Small double dummy victory for 1NT.

Now Phil can explain why double dummy simulation is ridiculously biased against 2C and why 1NT is still awful.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#9 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2011-May-06, 03:40

Quote

Now Phil can explain why double dummy simulation is ridiculously biased against 2C and why 1NT is still awful.


:)
For what's it worth it's probably biased towards 2 according to my theorem about NTvsSuit which says that first lead matters much more vs NT and declarers makes more tricks in NT comparing to double dummy than in suit contracts.
I have no prove what so over only some empirical evidence. Humanity will have to wait for stronger arguments :)
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#10 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-May-06, 04:00

I can think of two advantages of 3 over 1NT which won't have been picked up by Han's simulation:
- 3 limits responder's hand and shape more narrowly, so our game bidding will be more accurate after 3.
- If we belong in 3NT, partner should be declarer.

I'm not saying that those are enough reason to bid 3, but it's something to consider.

Also, you seem to be saying that it's normal for a 3415 15- or 16-count to bid again after 1NT. I'm not sure that I agree with that. Partner is expecting a misfit, and he's playing matchpoints too.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#11 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2011-May-06, 04:22

View Postgnasher, on 2011-May-06, 04:00, said:

I can think of two advantages of 3 over 1NT which won't have been picked up by Han's simulation:
- 3 limits responder's hand and shape more narrowly, so our game bidding will be more accurate after 3.
- If we belong in 3NT, partner should be declarer.

I'm not saying that those are enough reason to bid 3, but it's something to consider.


3C has a narrower range, indeed, but I don't think our hand falls into that range. If we overbid and misdescribe our hand, I don't think that our gamebidding will be more accurate. In fact, I would expect us to get to too many bad games.

The rightsiding factor is not so big. There are some holdings where notrump is better from partner's side, but probably more where it doesn't matter and I can think of at least one holding where notrump should be in our hand.

Quote

Also, you seem to be saying that it's normal for a 3415 15- or 16-count to bid again after 1NT. I'm not sure that I agree with that. Partner is expecting a misfit, and he's playing matchpoints too.


A 3-4-1-5 hand with 16 high card point is quite a powerful hand, I don't think partner would pass holding that. I also think you are overdoing the misfit angle.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#12 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-May-06, 04:24

I've never seen
1NT-p-2 to mean 4-4 in the majors (even if it's a weak NT, even if 2 was made by a passed hand), OP are you sure that's what it meant?
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#13 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2011-May-06, 09:41

Since I am only concerned with self-justification, here is my futile attempt at discounting Han's ridiculous DD analysis:

1. I think Han is overdoing the chances of a spade overcall in his constraints, especially by 4th chair. While many here will automatically overcall 1 on Axxxx and an 8 count, in real life it does not happen. This is significant, because it makes it more likely the opponent can run a lot of spades at us.

2. A sim assumes perfect defense and perfect play which means (and this is what Bluecalm is anecdotally suggesting):

- Declarer is always guessing diamonds right in 1N when he has x/xx.

- The defense leads trump against 2 only when it is right. Of course the defense finds the double dummy lead of the Q from AQTx against 1N when pard has Kxx, too, but it seems to impact a suit contract more.

3. If we bid 2, what are the chances the opponents are going to balance w/w? We are in a fit auction, so this seems quite possible and this is a great outcome for us.

I didn't mention it before, but I think 3 is very bad. It jeopardizes our plus in either 1N or 2, and gets us to a bad 3N a lot of the time, and when that matters, partner will sometimes take a call over 1N, although have others have stated a 3415 15-16 could be a problem.

Anyway, I will retract "awful", because it does look close either way. Even under Han's sim, it looks like the EV of the two contracts is about 3% different in matchpoints.

Now I will wait for Han to explain to me that 3% is a huge difference in EV, and its something I need to worry about.
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#14 User is offline   quiddity 

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Posted 2011-May-06, 10:39

View Postgwnn, on 2011-May-06, 04:24, said:

I've never seen
1NT-p-2 to mean 4-4 in the majors (even if it's a weak NT, even if 2 was made by a passed hand), OP are you sure that's what it meant?


I'm not sure. The opponent's explanation was confusing and we were short on time so I didn't follow up. Thinking back I suspect that Phil is right and it just means that responder doesn't have a game-force but could still have an invite with one major.
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#15 User is offline   rogerclee 

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Posted 2011-May-06, 14:55

1) Pass, it's incredibly scary to come in here r/r with a balanced hand and waste in spades.
2) Double, it's a min and again it's also quite scary to come in, but I think we have to act.
3) I think I pass and hope to survive, any bid seems inadequate. 2H looks good on the surface but hearts are almost certainly at best 6412 around the table, and our poor spot cards won't allow us to survive.
4) Double, not really a problem.
5) 1N, we have a balanced 10 count with a bunch of jacks and are playing matchpoints, I don't get it.
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#16 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2011-May-07, 14:30

On 5 we are told partner promises 5+ clubs. How does he bid with a 4=4=1=4 in that order?
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#17 User is offline   quiddity 

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Posted 2011-May-07, 15:08

View PostFrancesHinden, on 2011-May-07, 14:30, said:

On 5 we are told partner promises 5+ clubs. How does he bid with a 4=4=1=4 in that order?


Typically she would rebid 1NT with a minimum but with 15-17 or whatever she would probably rebid 1.
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#18 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2011-May-07, 15:43

I misinterpreted the information about hand 1. I change my response to pass. Only if I was pretty sure that the opponents had found a 4-4 heart fit would I bid 3C.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#19 User is offline   nige1 

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Posted 2011-May-07, 16:36

View Postquiddity, on 2011-May-05, 10:33, said:

Matchpoints, average club field.
1. Q8xx Tx Tx AKQxx. r/r, LHO deals.
(_p)-_p-(1N)-p;
(2)-_p-(2)-??
1NT = 12-14. 2 was alerted as non-forcing stayman (both majors)
IMO P = 10, X(T/O) = 5, 3 = 4.

View Postquiddity, on 2011-May-05, 10:33, said:

2. x xxxx QTx KQJxx. r/w, RHO deals
(_p)-_p-(2)-p;
(_p)-??
IMO X = 10, 3 = 6, P = 5.

View Postquiddity, on 2011-May-05, 10:33, said:

3. Tx J9xxxx 8xxx x. r/r, RHO deals.
(1)-_p-(1)-_X;
(1N)-_p-(_p)-_X;
(XX)-??
XX was "undiscussed".
IMO _P = 10. 2 = 9.

View Postquiddity, on 2011-May-05, 10:33, said:

4. Jx xx KQ9x K87xx. w/w, partner deals.
_p-(1)-_p-(1);
1-(2)-??
2 promised 4 card support.
IMO 2 = 10, _P = 9, _X = 6

View Postquiddity, on 2011-May-05, 10:33, said:

5. Jxx Jx AQJTx Jxx. w/w, LHO deals.
(_p)-1-(_p)-1;
(_p)-1-(_p)-??
Partner promises 5+ clubs.
IMO 3 = 10, 2 = 9, 1 = 6, 1N = 5.

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#20 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2011-May-07, 17:05

Could somebody explain the rationale behind 2S on hand 4? Doesn't double show this hand?
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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