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1S-1N-2H Three Hands

Poll: For each hand, what is your call of choice? (15 member(s) have cast votes)

Hand 1

  1. Pass (2 votes [13.33%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 13.33%

  2. 2S (13 votes [86.67%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 86.67%

Hand 2

  1. Pass (9 votes [60.00%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 60.00%

  2. 2S (6 votes [40.00%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 40.00%

Hand 3

  1. Pass (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  2. 2S (15 votes [100.00%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 100.00%

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#1 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 01:43

The post in the GIB forum got me thinking, where is the line where passing 2♥ on a 3-2 in the majors is right, and bidding 2♠ is right?

Playing a standard 2/1, 15-17 (or 14-16 if you wish) NT, what is your call after 1♠-1N (Forcing)-2♥ with these three hands?

Hand 1:

Hand 2:

Hand 3:

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#2 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 03:19

2S, 2S and 2S
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#3 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 03:35

Only on the second one I find reasonable to pass.
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#4 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 03:46

I'd bid 2♠ on all three, because oposite 5-4 2♠ is likely to play better than 2♥.

If the idea is to find out the threshold for giving false preference for constructive reasons, it would have been better not to give us ♠J.
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#5 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 04:19

View PostFluffy, on 2011-March-06, 03:35, said:

Only on the second one I find reasonable to pass.

Ditto. And the second one is close.
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#6 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 04:35

2♠ on 1 & 3, on 2 I'd just pass.
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#7 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 04:37

Pardon my remarkable ignorance but when is passing with 2-3 ever right?

Sure sure if partner has 5-5 we will be happy but is he really that often 5-5? Or are we trying to keep partner from bidding again?

The vast majority of times partner is minimum both in shape and strength so 2♠ will be a better contract. It seems to me passing is trying to be a genius in a situation where genius is not needed.
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#8 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 09:23

View Postgwnn, on 2011-March-06, 04:37, said:

Pardon my remarkable ignorance but when is passing with 2-3 ever right?

Sure sure if partner has 5-5 we will be happy but is he really that often 5-5? Or are we trying to keep partner from bidding again?

The vast majority of times partner is minimum both in shape and strength so 2♠ will be a better contract. It seems to me passing is trying to be a genius in a situation where genius is not needed.


I'd pass 2♥ with something like xx K10x Jxxx Qxxx. We don't really expect 2♠ to play any better than 2♥, and we do want the auction to stop.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#9 User is offline   jillybean 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 11:42

What makes #2 a correct or possible pass but #1 and #3 an automatic 2♠ bid?
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#10 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 12:11

View Postjillybean, on 2011-March-06, 11:42, said:

What makes #2 a correct or possible pass but #1 and #3 an automatic 2♠ bid?

That on #2 we don't want the auction to keep alive afraid of going too high when aprtner is 15-17
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#11 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 22:27

2♠ in all 3 of them for me. Passing with #2 is reasonable but not my choice, since i have exactly the same cards in majors as in #1 and #3
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Posted 2011-March-07, 00:50

Big believer in passing with hand 2. When we are that weak and the opps are not bidding, it's just really likely partner is going to make a third bid over our preference imo, and that rates to be bad.
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#13 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2011-March-07, 00:51

View Postjillybean, on 2011-March-06, 11:42, said:

What makes #2 a correct or possible pass but #1 and #3 an automatic 2♠ bid?


In numbers 1 and 3 we would accept some game tries if partner bid over our preference.
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#14 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2011-March-08, 03:25

View Postjillybean, on 2011-March-06, 11:42, said:

What makes #2 a correct or possible pass but #1 and #3 an automatic 2♠ bid?

I don't know if it's correct, but it's my philosophy that we should avoid partner bidding at 3-level when we're weak. If we bid 2♠ he gets that chance. With 1 and 3 we don't have a problem with that, but with 2 we definitely want to stay at 2-level. Playing a 4-3 is playable enough, but not always optimal with a 5-2 or 6-2 fit available. On the other hand, opener may have a 5-5 as well.
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