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1S-1N-2H Three Hands

Poll: For each hand, what is your call of choice? (15 member(s) have cast votes)

Hand 1

  1. Pass (2 votes [13.33%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 13.33%

  2. 2S (13 votes [86.67%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 86.67%

Hand 2

  1. Pass (9 votes [60.00%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 60.00%

  2. 2S (6 votes [40.00%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 40.00%

Hand 3

  1. Pass (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  2. 2S (15 votes [100.00%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 100.00%

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#1 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 01:43

The post in the GIB forum got me thinking, where is the line where passing 2 on a 3-2 in the majors is right, and bidding 2 is right?

Playing a standard 2/1, 15-17 (or 14-16 if you wish) NT, what is your call after 1-1N (Forcing)-2 with these three hands?

Hand 1:

Hand 2:

Hand 3:

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#2 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 03:19

2S, 2S and 2S
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#3 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 03:35

Only on the second one I find reasonable to pass.
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#4 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 03:46

I'd bid 2 on all three, because oposite 5-4 2 is likely to play better than 2.

If the idea is to find out the threshold for giving false preference for constructive reasons, it would have been better not to give us J.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#5 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 04:19

View PostFluffy, on 2011-March-06, 03:35, said:

Only on the second one I find reasonable to pass.

Ditto. And the second one is close.
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Posted 2011-March-06, 04:35

2 on 1 & 3, on 2 I'd just pass.
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#7 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 04:37

Pardon my remarkable ignorance but when is passing with 2-3 ever right?

Sure sure if partner has 5-5 we will be happy but is he really that often 5-5? Or are we trying to keep partner from bidding again?

The vast majority of times partner is minimum both in shape and strength so 2 will be a better contract. It seems to me passing is trying to be a genius in a situation where genius is not needed.
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#8 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 09:23

View Postgwnn, on 2011-March-06, 04:37, said:

Pardon my remarkable ignorance but when is passing with 2-3 ever right?

Sure sure if partner has 5-5 we will be happy but is he really that often 5-5? Or are we trying to keep partner from bidding again?

The vast majority of times partner is minimum both in shape and strength so 2 will be a better contract. It seems to me passing is trying to be a genius in a situation where genius is not needed.


I'd pass 2 with something like xx K10x Jxxx Qxxx. We don't really expect 2 to play any better than 2, and we do want the auction to stop.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#9 User is online   jillybean 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 11:42

What makes #2 a correct or possible pass but #1 and #3 an automatic 2 bid?
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#10 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 12:11

View Postjillybean, on 2011-March-06, 11:42, said:

What makes #2 a correct or possible pass but #1 and #3 an automatic 2 bid?

That on #2 we don't want the auction to keep alive afraid of going too high when aprtner is 15-17
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#11 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2011-March-06, 22:27

2 in all 3 of them for me. Passing with #2 is reasonable but not my choice, since i have exactly the same cards in majors as in #1 and #3
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#12 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2011-March-07, 00:50

Big believer in passing with hand 2. When we are that weak and the opps are not bidding, it's just really likely partner is going to make a third bid over our preference imo, and that rates to be bad.
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#13 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2011-March-07, 00:51

View Postjillybean, on 2011-March-06, 11:42, said:

What makes #2 a correct or possible pass but #1 and #3 an automatic 2 bid?


In numbers 1 and 3 we would accept some game tries if partner bid over our preference.
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#14 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2011-March-08, 03:25

View Postjillybean, on 2011-March-06, 11:42, said:

What makes #2 a correct or possible pass but #1 and #3 an automatic 2 bid?

I don't know if it's correct, but it's my philosophy that we should avoid partner bidding at 3-level when we're weak. If we bid 2 he gets that chance. With 1 and 3 we don't have a problem with that, but with 2 we definitely want to stay at 2-level. Playing a 4-3 is playable enough, but not always optimal with a 5-2 or 6-2 fit available. On the other hand, opener may have a 5-5 as well.
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