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2C precision in competition

#1 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2011-February-23, 17:55

2 2 dbl pass
3 pass 3 pass
4

imps; both vulnerable;
It was actually polish club so 2C could be 5C-4M but it doesn't matter much in this auction I think.
Should 4C be forcing here ?
How would you bid:

AKQ62 A9 T92 T84

97 KT2 7 AKJ7632 ?

I had to double instead of 2 in first round because we play 2 as not forcing (but constructive) and 3 as forcing natural but pomising 6 spades.
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#2 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2011-February-23, 19:19

I think you have enough to raise to 5 at the end. I would also like to do more with South as it's a pretty good hand especially after being limited by the 3 rebid. It depends on your agreements but probably either 4 or 4 instead of 4.
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#3 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2011-February-23, 19:36

Oh, 4 wasn't actual bid. My partner bid 5 fearing that 4 would be not forcing. We missed a good slam and we are wondering if we had a chance there.
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#4 User is offline   barmar 

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Posted 2011-February-24, 19:58

It's hard to feel too bad about missing 24 HCP slams. The opponents might not even make it to game, or end up in 3NT going down on a diamond lead.

#5 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2011-February-25, 00:53

What's the maximum of 2?
The easiest way to count losers is to line up the people who talk about loser count, and count them. -Kieran Dyke
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#6 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-February-25, 02:58

I think it's just a matter of agreement - you can play 3 as game-forcing, or you can play is as a one-round force, and there are advantages to both methods. Personally I prefer not to have any sequences that are forcing only to 4m, because I don't like having to remember what they are.

This isn't particularly a Precison problem. You would have had the same problem in a standard system if the auction had started with 1 (2) and you were playing negative free-bids.

In fact, it's not even a negative free-bid problem. If it had gone
1/2 (2) 2   [forcing]
3 3
4
you would still need to know whether 3 was game-forcing.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#7 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2011-February-25, 04:30

Quote

What's the maximum of 2♣?


11-14 in general. Very good 14 like ATx x Kxx AKT9xxx is too strong though.
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#8 User is offline   Mbodell 

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Posted 2011-February-25, 19:26

View Postbluecalm, on 2011-February-25, 04:30, said:

11-14 in general. Very good 14 like ATx x Kxx AKT9xxx is too strong though.


Is that points or cards. :)

We usually play 2 as 10-15 but I have noticed that we've missed some games with the 15 counts so I'm thinking I'll upgrade many of them into 1 or (strong nt part of)1 moving forward.
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#9 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2011-February-26, 02:38

Quote

We usually play 2♣ as 10-15 but I have noticed that we've missed some games with the 15 counts so I'm thinking I'll upgrade many of them into 1♣ or (strong nt part of)1♦ moving forward.


Points.
We play that way only in polish club though (cause you are not forced to game opposite 8-9hcp)
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#10 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2011-February-26, 09:54

Given your range for 2, maybe it is right to rebid 4 right away instead of 3?
The easiest way to count losers is to line up the people who talk about loser count, and count them. -Kieran Dyke
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