I have just played this hand last night, I dont know how to handle the bidding well. I hold the following hand:
S Qxx
H QT8x
D Void
C AKJxxx
We are playing 2/1 GF with my partner. Partner bade 1D and passed to me. It's pretty bad news hearing partner bade my void suit!! However, as we are playing 5 card major opening, 1D opening has a chance that his diamond suit is not strong but he was forced to bid this as he did not have 5 card major or something not suitable to open NT. From now, I can quite sure if his diamond suit is not a real one, I should bid slam try.
Nevertheless, I must bid 1H now as responsing majors is the first priority and see the further description of my partner. Unfortunately, he bade 1NT showing 12-14 balance hand. Now, I had the problem of showing my 6 card minor. The following are the choices I have thought of :
1) Jump to 3C - but I think it would show at least 5-5 hand. Would I need to tell a lie? I dont like so
2) 2C-(2X)-3C - 2C is new minor forcing and 3C can just show 4+ clubs and partner would ususally bid 3NT even he got 4 card clubs. However, it's the best bid as I can bid 4C over 3NT to show an unbalance hand with long clubs, hoping partner would not confuse it with gerber.
3) 3NT - holding only 12 HCP, adding up with partner's 12-14, I think the most likely game is 3NT. So, In the real case, I bade this and I found partner's hand was:
S AKx
H A9x
D QTxx
C QXX
3NT was of course sure make, but we had missed 75% 6C!!!!
I was so unlucky that partner was holding the hand I have imagined to have slam!!
But how can I reach this nice slam?
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Bidding problem 2
#2
Posted 2003-April-23, 22:08
You say that bidding the 4 card major is a first priority. In a hand of game forcing strength (which yours is) this is not a standard way to play.
Playing SAYC or 2/1 GF I would have responded 2C, then followed it up with 2H (unless partner supported my Clubs). Even then, it is not easy to find slam. Note how useful the H9 is!
Three further points:
There are systems where bidding 2C over 1D denies a 4 card major even in a GF hand. But if you agree to play these then you must agree some mechanism to show the sort of hand you held. This can be via 2C checkback (which is equivalent in this case to New Minor Forcing), or use 2 way checkback where 2D shows a GF hand and 2C shows a weak hand with D support or any invitational hand, or use 2NT as a puppet to 3C with various follow ups. Since all these need discussion, I wouldn't play them in a pick-up parnership.
I note that your partner seems to hold a 15-17 1NT opener playing 2/1GF! Are you sure you have his hand correct? Do you have a way to show your hand opposite a 1NT opener? Again, there are many methods you can use, but they all require discussion.
Does 1NT 2C 2X 3C show a strong or weak hand? I have seen it both ways. Even if you agree to play 4 suit transfers, some people play 1NT 2S! 3C 3H as 4H + 6C, some people play it as 6+C and short Hearts (they would bid 3D on the second round to show short diamonds). Since you are unlikely to have actually agreed on this sequence in a pick up partnership, I wouldn't risk it either!
Finally, your partner has shown in effect a weak NT with length ( and so presumably some strength) opposite your void. The chances of a slam opposite that hand are slim, and trying to find a slam with any accuracy in a pick up partnership carry the great risk of misunderstandings. I would have been quite happy to arrive in a makeable contract!
Eric
Playing SAYC or 2/1 GF I would have responded 2C, then followed it up with 2H (unless partner supported my Clubs). Even then, it is not easy to find slam. Note how useful the H9 is!
Three further points:
There are systems where bidding 2C over 1D denies a 4 card major even in a GF hand. But if you agree to play these then you must agree some mechanism to show the sort of hand you held. This can be via 2C checkback (which is equivalent in this case to New Minor Forcing), or use 2 way checkback where 2D shows a GF hand and 2C shows a weak hand with D support or any invitational hand, or use 2NT as a puppet to 3C with various follow ups. Since all these need discussion, I wouldn't play them in a pick-up parnership.
I note that your partner seems to hold a 15-17 1NT opener playing 2/1GF! Are you sure you have his hand correct? Do you have a way to show your hand opposite a 1NT opener? Again, there are many methods you can use, but they all require discussion.
Does 1NT 2C 2X 3C show a strong or weak hand? I have seen it both ways. Even if you agree to play 4 suit transfers, some people play 1NT 2S! 3C 3H as 4H + 6C, some people play it as 6+C and short Hearts (they would bid 3D on the second round to show short diamonds). Since you are unlikely to have actually agreed on this sequence in a pick up partnership, I wouldn't risk it either!
Finally, your partner has shown in effect a weak NT with length ( and so presumably some strength) opposite your void. The chances of a slam opposite that hand are slim, and trying to find a slam with any accuracy in a pick up partnership carry the great risk of misunderstandings. I would have been quite happy to arrive in a makeable contract!
Eric
#3
Posted 2003-April-23, 23:44
I am sorry that the correct hand is:
My partner :
S KQX
H A9x
D QTXX
C QXX
Mine:
S AXX
H QT8X
D Void
C AKJXXX
Btw, that means when I held GF hand with longer minor, I need to bid 2C and then bid heart again? But the question is that will he know you are showing heart suit? Isnt it be natural that you are showing stoppers only?
Thanks
My partner :
S KQX
H A9x
D QTXX
C QXX
Mine:
S AXX
H QT8X
D Void
C AKJXXX
Btw, that means when I held GF hand with longer minor, I need to bid 2C and then bid heart again? But the question is that will he know you are showing heart suit? Isnt it be natural that you are showing stoppers only?
Thanks
#4
Posted 2003-April-24, 04:07
Hi there,
With a GF hand, it is easy: Just bid your longest suit first, the shorter later.
Even Aunt Millie will understand.
The problem is: If you play all Club/Heart two suiters in all strength ranges in the 1 Heart answer, you will give too many hands in this one bid: You need to show 5/5, 5/4 4/5 patterns and GF strength, weak hands or intermedeate strength. Just too much for one bid.
So, with strong 4/5 bid your longest suit first.
With lesser strength bid the major first.
This is not perfect but works quite well.
To your hand:
S KQX Axx
H A9x QT8x
D QTXX --
C QXX AKJxxx
It is not too easy to reach the slam with a pick up partner or with a normal pd without much system discussion. Lets try it:
1 Diamond 2 Club
2 NT (*1) 3 Heart
3 NT (*2) 4 Club (*3)
4 Heart (*4) 5 Diamond (*5)
5 Spade (*6) 6 Club (*7)
*1 I hope you know, that pd shows 12-14? or was it 18/19 or 15-17 with a club singelton? I have seen all...
(And all ways have their con and pros.
*2 No need to bid 4 club. 3 Heart was just GF, so I bid the likely game with spades under good control.
*3 This is still gf of course, but I saw a pd pass this in quite a similar sequence...
*4 Cuebid for Clubs, but maybe just a preference with at most 1 club and three Hearts? Do you remember *1?
* 5 Voidwood or a cuebid or to play?
*6 1 ace outside diamonds, or first round control or second round control in spades..depends on the understanding of *5
*7 Heureka! We reached the slam at last! Bridge is so easy. Just pure logic and partnership understanding...
Okay, I know from pd that he has 12-14 HCPS NTs with longer diamonds then clubs. He has hopefully one ace and the majors under control.
I do not know, if he has Ax. Axx, AJx, A9x in Heart.
I do not know, if he has two or three clubs and if he has the queen or not.
If I really think it over: I do not know enough about his hand, but I am above 5 club, so lets try 6.
The bottom line: I do not so much more then after:
1 D-2C-2NT-6Club... :-)
Voids in partners opening suit are always difficult to judge: This time pd has perfect cards for the slam, no wasted diamond honours.
But if you had reached 6 club, he would have:
S KQX
H Axx
D KQTX
C XX
Absolute consistent with the bidding, even one HCP more but not enough chances in 6 Club. (About 25 % I guess..)
So, sometimes you miss a slam with 27 HCPS, these things happen...
But most times, you should be glad to miss it, because the hands don`t fit so perfect then this time.
Kind Regards
Roland
With a GF hand, it is easy: Just bid your longest suit first, the shorter later.
Even Aunt Millie will understand.
The problem is: If you play all Club/Heart two suiters in all strength ranges in the 1 Heart answer, you will give too many hands in this one bid: You need to show 5/5, 5/4 4/5 patterns and GF strength, weak hands or intermedeate strength. Just too much for one bid.
So, with strong 4/5 bid your longest suit first.
With lesser strength bid the major first.
This is not perfect but works quite well.
To your hand:
S KQX Axx
H A9x QT8x
D QTXX --
C QXX AKJxxx
It is not too easy to reach the slam with a pick up partner or with a normal pd without much system discussion. Lets try it:
1 Diamond 2 Club
2 NT (*1) 3 Heart
3 NT (*2) 4 Club (*3)
4 Heart (*4) 5 Diamond (*5)
5 Spade (*6) 6 Club (*7)
*1 I hope you know, that pd shows 12-14? or was it 18/19 or 15-17 with a club singelton? I have seen all...
(And all ways have their con and pros.
*2 No need to bid 4 club. 3 Heart was just GF, so I bid the likely game with spades under good control.
*3 This is still gf of course, but I saw a pd pass this in quite a similar sequence...
*4 Cuebid for Clubs, but maybe just a preference with at most 1 club and three Hearts? Do you remember *1?
* 5 Voidwood or a cuebid or to play?
*6 1 ace outside diamonds, or first round control or second round control in spades..depends on the understanding of *5
*7 Heureka! We reached the slam at last! Bridge is so easy. Just pure logic and partnership understanding...
Okay, I know from pd that he has 12-14 HCPS NTs with longer diamonds then clubs. He has hopefully one ace and the majors under control.
I do not know, if he has Ax. Axx, AJx, A9x in Heart.
I do not know, if he has two or three clubs and if he has the queen or not.
If I really think it over: I do not know enough about his hand, but I am above 5 club, so lets try 6.
The bottom line: I do not so much more then after:
1 D-2C-2NT-6Club... :-)
Voids in partners opening suit are always difficult to judge: This time pd has perfect cards for the slam, no wasted diamond honours.
But if you had reached 6 club, he would have:
S KQX
H Axx
D KQTX
C XX
Absolute consistent with the bidding, even one HCP more but not enough chances in 6 Club. (About 25 % I guess..)
So, sometimes you miss a slam with 27 HCPS, these things happen...
But most times, you should be glad to miss it, because the hands don`t fit so perfect then this time.
Kind Regards
Roland
Kind Regards
Roland
Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
Roland
Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
#5
Posted 2003-April-24, 04:46
Quote
I am sorry that the correct hand is:
My partner :
S KQX
H A9x
D QTXX
C QXX
Mine:
S AXX
H QT8X
D Void
C AKJXXX
Btw, that means when I held GF hand with longer minor, I need to bid 2C and then bid heart again? But the question is that will he know you are showing heart suit? Isnt it be natural that you are showing stoppers only?
Thanks
My partner :
S KQX
H A9x
D QTXX
C QXX
Mine:
S AXX
H QT8X
D Void
C AKJXXX
Btw, that means when I held GF hand with longer minor, I need to bid 2C and then bid heart again? But the question is that will he know you are showing heart suit? Isnt it be natural that you are showing stoppers only?
Thanks
I agree with Eric comments about the chances for slam opposite this hand with a 1D-1H-1NT auction is fairly slim indeed. The best chance to luck into 6C would be if your partner had opened a prepared 1CLUB, a standard ploy to try to discourage a club lead when he rebids 1NT over your response. Bidding this slam would get even easier still if over your partners 1C if your RHO would be kind enough to bid some number of diamonds (they do hold 9 fairly good diamonds between them).
My response to 1D with this hand would have been 2 CLUBS instead of a 1HEART. As I said in a post on if 1D-2C is GF, I play 1D-2C as game force (where 4C or 4D = "game", if 3NT is unplayable). I doubt that getting to slam is any easier on this magic fit after 1D-2C however. I like the kokish rebids on this auction were openers rebids are:
2D = 5+ Diamonds, forcing (2C was "game force")
2H = 4-4-4-1 distribution (singleton Club)
2S = good Club raise
2N = 11-14 HCPs, balanced distribution
3C = weak Club raise
3D = 16+ points and a 6-card Diamond suit
3H/3S = splinter Club raise
3N = balanced 18-19HCPs
A major suit rebid by responder after these responses tend to be a four card suit (especially after 2D), although sometimes used looking for a stopper in the other major for Notrump.
So my auction would have started 1D-2C. Having said that, even with an intial 2C response, I seriously doubt I would have even come close to bidding the slam. However, I have constructed two auctions that might end up in slam as a reply to your original question, but it requires that the 3-3-4-3 hand bid aggresively. (I wonder, did anyone bid this slam, and if so, how?)
1D - 2C
2N - 3H (3C by responder is also forcing, 3H = 4 cards)
3S - 4S
6C - Pass
On the above auction, I play the 3H bid to always show 4 cards, since I play 3C as 100% forcing. If as responder I was interested in stoppers in one or the other major for notrump, I could rebid 3C and wait to hear where the stopper might be (3H=h, 3S=S, 3N=both). Sadly as opener with 4-3-3-3 and double stopper in spades, over 3H I would rebid 3NT and miss this very lucky slam. However, here I had opener rebid 3S as value showing, assuming his partner will rebid 3NT. Responder, with good three card support and ruffing values, however tries for game in the presumed 4-3 spade fit. Opener, lacking four spades and with weak diamonds, realizes his partner is short in diamonds (3-4-0-6 or 4-4-0-5 seem most likely) thus a good fitting hand with leaps to slam (even if opener only rebids 5C on this auction, responder will carry on to 6C, as 3S must have shown diamond weakness when 4S is pulled).
A potential problem with the above auction is that some people play 3S on this auction (after 3H) denies a spade stopper, while 3N shows one. If you play that way, once again there is no shot at getting to 6C, as over 3NT, responder will have to pass.
Another potential auction....
1D-2C (remember 2C then 3C is still 100% forcing for me)
2N-3C 2N denies 5+diamonds, and shows 11-14 balanced
3D-3N 3D denies 4 card major, 3N = no major suit worry
?
If opener had good hearts and weak spades, he would rebid 3H over 3D, reverse the majors, could bid the other way). An aggressive opener might wonder why responder bid 3C if he was going to unilaterally bid 3N without making a major suit inquiry over 3D. On the other hand, a worrysome opener after hearing his parter bid and rebid clubs, then not even inquire about the majors might worry that the opponents could grab too many diamonds. In either of these cases, if opener pullls 3NT, surely 6C will be the final contract. Of course, over 3C with opener's hand I simply rebid 3NT, again missing any chance to bid the slam.
--Ben--
#6
Posted 2003-April-24, 05:38
Thanks all. I have learnt a lot here. Actually, I also think that the slam chance is so slim after I hear partner opening with my void, but there are 5 tables getting to 6C and so I just ask if my bidding theory is too poor to do so. Btw, I am still satifised with my destiny 3NT.
#7
Posted 2003-April-24, 06:29
Quote
Thanks all. I have learnt a lot here. Actually, I also think that the slam chance is so slim after I hear partner opening with my void, but there are 5 tables getting to 6C and so I just ask if my bidding theory is too poor to do so. Btw, I am still satifised with my destiny 3NT.
Kongo's reply that 5 pairs bid slam prompted me to go look this hand up on the myhands site and see how they bid it.
First, 6 pairs bid the slam (not 5), but one pair managed to go down by losing 2 heart tricks. Second, of the 16 times this hand was played, 3 pairs opened the north hand 1C, 13 pairs opened it 1D. All three pairs opening 1C bid 6C (100%), only 3 of the 13 pairs opening 1D bid 6C (23%).
But the interesting thing is that all the pairs who bid the slam simply blasted to it, two bidding 4N along the way despite their Diamond void (I am not sure if quantatitive or blackwood, but both of their partners bid 5D over 4N). Here are the slam auctions (I don't endorse any, this is just for informational purposes).
DIAMOND OPENERS
1D-1H
1N-2C
2N-4N 4N = start of blast?
5D-6C
1D-2C
2N-3H
3N-4N 4N = start of blast?
5D-6C
1D-2C
2N-3H
3N-6C 6C = blast
CLUB OPENERS
1C-(1D)-1H-(P)
1N-(P)-6C 6C = super blast
1C-(1D)-X-(2D)
P-(P)-6C 6C = blast
1C-(1D)-3D-X
3N-(P)-6C (doubled) 6 Club = blast
Notice for the club openers, they all got Diamond interference, making the slam easier to bid, and much more likely to make. These auctions also took only two rounds of bidding....
--Ben--
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