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Pass or not to pass

#1 User is offline   losercover 

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Posted 2010-October-30, 11:31

The reverse shows 11+ HCP points and 5 or fewer losers.



Should N pass 3NT? Should S bid 3NT?
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#2 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2010-October-30, 12:40

There is a very clear, and simple answer to this hand: Reversing is terrible.

From the +110 thread:

View Postlosercover, on 2010-October-29, 16:55, said:

Our reverse shows 5 losers with a minimum of 11 pts, so I open 1c, rebid 2d and pass the 2s rebid. Partner can't expect me to have many spades.


Reversing on these hands completely distorts your values, and therefore I abstain.
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#3 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-October-30, 12:46

Should South bid 2NT?
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#4 User is offline   MickyB 

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Posted 2010-October-30, 12:51

Both of South's NT bids look ridiculous, unless 2NT was the only way to force or something. You have a 6-4 fit and lots of points in partner's second suit yet you want to play 3NT with Axxx and QTx opposite partner's shortages, hmmmm
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#5 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2010-October-30, 12:52

I didn't even make it past the reverses... I disagree with every call in this auction. Perhaps a first for me, LOL
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#6 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2010-October-30, 12:54

View Postgnasher, on 2010-October-30, 12:46, said:

Should South bid 2NT?

I don't think so.
2NT! is Lebensohl.

3D = GF ...with this hand with the extremely useful K J doubleton....when partner has shown a 5-6 with a hand that is worth reversing and slam might be more than probable.
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#7 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-October-30, 16:22

View Postmtvesuvius, on 2010-October-30, 12:52, said:

I didn't even make it past the reverses... I disagree with every call in this auction. Perhaps a first for me, LOL

lol me too, except for 1 wich is fine.
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#8 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2010-October-30, 16:30

View PostFluffy, on 2010-October-30, 16:22, said:

lol me too, except for 1 wich is fine.


Can't get to 1 without the 1 call... lol
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#9 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2010-October-30, 18:18

North's bidding is from Lala land. Open this 1H so that you can show both suits.
Can't undestand why South never showed D support.
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#10 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2010-October-31, 06:19

View Postlosercover, on 2010-October-30, 11:31, said:




Should N pass 3NT? Should S bid 3NT?


1) yes but pray

2) No, he misevaluated his hand! He has an A in the black suits and 5HCP in the suits where his partner has long suits and he knows the partnership has a 10 card fit. He needs to tell his partner to play
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#11 User is offline   wank 

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Posted 2010-October-31, 16:23

you're playing ultra-perverted methods. there's no point asking us what to do because the only people who could possibly empathise with this are serving long jail terms in the deviants' wing.

still, i would hand myself in to the police if i never bid diamonds as south when partner showed 6-5.
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#12 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2010-October-31, 18:13

North's bidding was ok. It's an overbid to reverse with that hand but not by a lot. If North had J instead of a small one his sequence would be perfect.

South's 2NT and especially 3NT were horrible with his weak black suit holdings and partner having 11 red cards. How did he think 3NT would play compared to 4, 5 or 6? The given North hand should not be a surprise.

North should definitely pass 3NT playing with any normal South. He has nothing more to say.
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#13 User is offline   quiddity 

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Posted 2010-November-01, 17:52

I like the 1 opening and hate South's 2NT bid (and hate 3NT even more).
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#14 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2010-November-02, 00:22

Hi,

#1 1D is fine, you are 6-5, and the suits are nice.
You dont need to start with 1D, but 1D is certainly a reasonable bid.
The playing power for a reverse is certainly there.
This is partly a matter of partnership style / agreement, does your
partnership allow reverses on 6-5 hands, which dont have a lot of HCP or not.
If the partnership does, 1D is ok, otherwise start with 1H.
#2 2NT - if it is forcing and natural, is also ok.
Most peoble will play 2NT in this seq. as artificial, but if it is
forcing and natural, you have the hand for it.
#3 To the question - Opener showed a powerful 6-5 hand, you have 4 card
support in his longer suit and KJ in his 2nd suit, so pass is out of
the question, you should start showing your fit.
Also you have an Ace in one of openers side suits, so unless it is looking
at a void, you are covering one of openers loosers, so all in all, if you have
no idea what to bid 6D is a lot better than pass, luckily you dont need to
shoot, you have 4D av.

With kind regeards
Marlowe

PS: I saw too late, that you are working with the LTC.
The LTC will tell you, that
#1 the king of hearts will be covering one looser
#2 the heart doubleton will be covering another looser (or 1/2)
#3 the Ace will be covering one looser in the black suits
=> overall playing in diamonds, you will have at best 2 1/2 looser,
and this assumes dead min for opener, if he is slightly stronger,
than you are in the small slam area / zone.
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#15 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2010-November-02, 01:36

To the 1D openers
1 (4S) P (P)
?

Aren't you better placed after
1 (4S) P (P)

Its even worse if you get your reverse in and partner doubles on the assumption you have your bid. Now what?
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#16 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2010-November-02, 01:51

View Postthe hog, on 2010-November-02, 01:36, said:

To the 1D openers
1 (4S) P (P)
?

Aren't you better placed after
1 (4S) P (P)

Its even worse if you get your reverse in and partner doubles on the assumption you have your bid. Now what?


In your first auction - 4NT.

Hopefully p remembers this agreement, for us this showes in this seq. (general) 2 place to play,
and in this specific seq. a higher ranking suit, which has to be shorter.

If you dont have this agreement, than you are better placed after 1H.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#17 User is offline   bucky 

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Posted 2010-November-03, 13:06

View Postlosercover, on 2010-October-30, 11:31, said:

The reverse shows 11+ HCP points and 5 or fewer losers.



Should N pass 3NT? Should S bid 3NT?

Since you posted in SAYC and 2/1 forum, I assume we are not talking about big club system. In that context, the lower range of reverse should not be as low as 11 HCP, otherwise it is not SAYC or 2/1. Having said that, I really don't understand South's 2NT (and subsequent 3NT) either, why conceal 4-card support and insist on no-trump with very shaky side-suit stoppers? In short, it is probably better to get earlier bidding right than trying to decide what to bid on 4th round with damages done by previous wrong messages both ways.
 
 
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#18 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2010-November-03, 14:55

Hm. 1-1-2-2NT-3-4-4-4-6? Or is that too pushy?
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#19 User is offline   kayin801 

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Posted 2010-November-03, 15:56

If you are going to reverse on this hand and if 2NT is forcing, then 3NT is absurd except against very bad players at MP, and even then its not good. It is never right against anyone of any competence or at IMPs. Partner shows 6-5 with this and we have a great hand for diamonds and a terrible one for NT, so we need a forcing 4 to be bid after 3.

Opening 1 is also terrible, if our suit disparity was greater I could at least buy it but the extra diamond doesn't justify making your life more difficult.
I once yelled at my partner for discarding the 'wrong' card when he was subjected to a squeeze that I allowed by giving the wrong count with too high a card. Now he's allowed to pitch aces when the opponents have the king in the dummy. At trick 2. When he could have followed suit. And blame me.

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