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untangling the red suits

#1 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 09:10



How do you bid this, and how would oyu bid with the red suits of anyone reversed?
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#2 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 09:44

I'd start with 1 from S, and splinter from North eventually (I don't normally have a splinter bid available in suits not bid by opponents). Even if I'm sure I'd miss this slam sometimes, I am sure I'm not resulting when I say I wouldn't double with S.
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#3 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 10:54

View Postgwnn, on 2010-October-26, 09:44, said:

I'd start with 1 from S, and splinter from North eventually (I don't normally have a splinter bid available in suits not bid by opponents). Even if I'm sure I'd miss this slam sometimes, I am sure I'm not resulting when I say I wouldn't double with S.

Below is an auction using Gwnn's suggestion that South should Overcall with 2S.

Now, if you are playing Rubens Transfer Advances, the (1C)-1S auction has the MOST room for Transfers by partner( who can transfer to every suit[ other than Opener's ] if he so desires :
2C>> 2D, 2D>>2H, 2H>>2S

But, there is another bid in the Transfer Advances arsenal and that is 2NT! by Advancer which is a 4 card limit raise+:

(1C) - 1S - (p) - 2NT!
(p) - 4C! -(p) - 4NT ( RKC )
(p) - 5NT -(p) - 6S
where:
4C! = splinter
5NT = 2 + void, obviously Cl
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
Note: if Opener did not have shortness in Cl and just rebid 3D,
then North could bid a 4H! splinter which overcomes the problem in splintering in a suit
other than opps' suit ( another Gwnn concern ).
Don Stenmark
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"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall

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#4 User is offline   paulg 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 11:10

I'm pretty sure that I'd miss the slam in all cases. It seems unlikely that North will co-operate with any slam try when partner splinters into his long suit and he has only four poor trumps and another ace.
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#5 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 11:27

View PostTWO4BRIDGE, on 2010-October-26, 10:54, said:

Below is an auction using Gwnn's suggestion that South should Overcall with 2S.

Now, if you are playing Rubens Transfer Advances, the (1C)-1S auction has the MOST room for Transfers by partner( who can transfer to every suit[ other than Opener's ] if he so desires :
2C>> 2D, 2D>>2H, 2H>>2S

But, there is another bid in the Transfer Advances arsenal and that is 2NT! by Advancer which is a 4 card limit raise+:

(1C) - 1S - (p) - 2NT!
(p) - 4C! -(p) - 4NT ( RKC )
(p) - 5NT -(p) - 6S
where:
4C! = splinter
5NT = 2 + void, obviously Cl
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
Note: if Opener did not have shortness in Cl and just rebid 3D,
then North could bid a 4H! splinter which overcomes the problem in splintering in a suit
other than opps' suit ( another Gwnn concern ).


Switching the RED suits in ONE of the partner's hands... same auction, but slam doesn't look so good :blink: :(
Don Stenmark
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"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall

" Did someone mention relays? " .... Zelandakh

K-Rex to Mikeh : " Sometimes you drive me nuts " .
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#6 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 11:35

It seems easy enough after a 1 overcall:

(1)
1 2
2 3
4 4
5 5
6

But that's partly luck - the auction happens to let advancer splinter before the overcaller does.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#7 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 12:24

overcall 1 by South and make a 4 card limit raise by North
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#8 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 14:42

View Postpaulg, on 2010-October-26, 11:10, said:

I'm pretty sure that I'd miss the slam in all cases. It seems unlikely that North will co-operate with any slam try when partner splinters into his long suit and he has only four poor trumps and another ace.

Well we play that 2 shows exactly 4 trumps, obviously the trump is horrible, but zero wastage in clubs despite having minimum values and a side shortness I think its enough for 4 cue from north.
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#9 User is offline   mfa1010 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 17:11

5440 can be ok for a double, but on this hand I prefer 1.

Then maybe

(1)-1-(p)-2NT
(p) - 4

and I don't know where it will end. Perhaps in the poorish slam, not sure.
Michael Askgaard
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#10 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2010-October-27, 04:27

(1)-1-P-2
P-2-P-3
p-5-P-5
P-6

2 is a good raise to 2 or better, 2 is a game try or better, 3 is a splinter, 5 is exclusion.

If either hand has the red suits reversed, it will be clear that you'll have a singleton opposite partner's game try and nobody will get excited.
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#11 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-October-27, 04:42

View PostCyberyeti, on 2010-October-27, 04:27, said:

(1)-1-P-2
P-2-P-3
p-5-P-5
P-6

2 is a good raise to 2 or better, 2 is a game try or better, 3 is a splinter, 5 is exclusion.

On a bad day, partner will have J10xx x J10x AKxxx. Against 5, LHO will lead a diamond to his partner's ace, RHO will put his partner in with J, and LHO will give his partner a diamond ruff. Why would you take the risk (albeit a small one) when you can find out what you need to know at the four-level?
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#12 User is offline   mcphee 

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Posted 2010-October-27, 04:56

I prefer to o/c 1S intending to double for t/o later, even if the red suits are reversed. Slam is not exactly gin here, 3-1 trumps on a trump lead could present a problem allowing only 2H ruffs, even 2 rounds of trumps could be a problem in 6. In fact doesn't slam rates to go down on a trump lead, game suits me this hand thanks. The over call allows you to survive any C pre-empt with the re-opening dble.
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#13 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-October-27, 06:27

Good point about the trump lead, which is going to be more-or-less marked on the bidding. Still, it's not such a bad slam given the bidding. It requires diamonds 3-3, or trumps 3=1 with RHO having all the heart honours, or a squeeze.

If trumps are 3=1, the squeeze chances will be pretty good. It might go: trump to the 10, heart ducked by East and won by West, trump won in hand, heart ruff, club ruff, heart ruff, club ruff. We can now squeeze East if he was 1345, or had three heart honours with four diamonds. In that position, we'd be going down only if East was 1444 with only two heart honours, or if he was 1426

If trumps are 2-2, we still have the minor-suit squeeze when East is 2245.

Alternatively, if we're allowed to win the first trump in dummy, we might play for East to be 2425 with all the heart honours - ruff a club at trick two, then lead a high heart from hand. After he wins and returns a trump, we cash three rounds of diamonds, ending in dummy, to trump squeeze him.

This post has been edited by gnasher: 2010-October-27, 06:46

... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#14 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2010-October-27, 06:53

Overcall 1S rather than double. Now 4H splinter and I think I might get to it.
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#15 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2010-October-27, 07:05

View Postgnasher, on 2010-October-27, 04:42, said:

On a bad day, partner will have J10xx x J10x AKxxx. Against 5, LHO will lead a diamond to his partner's ace, RHO will put his partner in with J, and LHO will give his partner a diamond ruff. Why would you take the risk (albeit a small one) when you can find out what you need to know at the four-level?

Point taken, although I judged (presuming it's the standard 2 card plus club on these boards, if it's 3+ this option not available) that he couldn't have that sort of hand, or he'd have had a 3 fit jump first time.

He could however be 4144.
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#16 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-October-27, 11:02

I am gonna post the same hand south hand next month, but now north will hold KQJxx will see if everyone starts with 1 then :)
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#17 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-October-27, 11:28

I would..
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
      George Carlin
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#18 User is offline   mikestar13 

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Posted 2010-October-27, 15:46

As you started, then 4 cue bid from North, then 5 demanding slam opposite a control by South. (Yes, we might have three losers, but this is unlikely.) Similar sequence with reds reversed.
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#19 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-October-27, 16:25

View Postmikestar13, on 2010-October-27, 15:46, said:

As you started, then 4 cue bid from North, then 5 demanding slam opposite a control by South. (Yes, we might have three losers, but this is unlikely.)

So you want to be in slam opposite J10xx Kxx Axx Axx?
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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