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Bidding question on rebid?

#1 User is offline   ajain456 

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Posted 2010-October-24, 07:31


Playing 2/1 system
What is my rebid?
I opened 1.
My partner responds 2
Is my rebid 2 or 3?
Thanks.
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#2 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2010-October-24, 07:41

2. A jump to 3 should show a suit that will usually play for no losers opposite a stiff. If you had a seventh spade, then 3 would be your rebid.

There is also a style aspect here. If you play that rebidding 2 of your major only shows 5, then you may have a few problems later in the bidding. If 2M promises 6, then you will be fine. Over 3N by partner (especially when 2 could be 5), you have a close call whether to bid 4N though... Personally I would pass, but slam could easily be making.
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#3 User is offline   bucky 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 11:26

This type of question is a manifest of why I think 2/1 system is not for casual partnership. Just agreeing to play 2-over-1-game-force is not good enough (actually not even close to being good). You need LOTS of discussion and agreements to take advantage of the system.
 
 
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#4 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 11:38

as above. Without agreements, I guess I'd go with 3
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#5 User is online   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 15:08

Hi,

Matter of agreement, but I would go with 3S.

One of the thinks I see all around is, that neither side
starts to limit its hand.
With the given hand, you have a nice 6 card suit and add.
values, so tell this p, that implies that a 2S response
would limit your hand.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#6 User is offline   Venom 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 15:13

In answering what rebid might best serve the partnership, arguments can be made for both 2 or 3S for reasons already presented. However, IMO, at least part of the rebid decision should be based on opener's holding in responder's heart suit, in this case Tx. Due to this partial support, I recommend a 2-spade rebid. (We will be getting to game: I haven't had a partner pass in a forcing sequence within the past 2 weeks.)

Think about responder's hand and potential problems. So far responder has only informed you of having at least an opening bid and at least 5 hearts. Not much to go on, yet. If opener rebids 2S, this leaves many more options for rebids for responder after which opener can have a better picture of how to move. With AKQ7th of spades, the issue of what is going to be trumps is likely predetermined and established by a 3S rebid. Otherwise, opener needs more information from responder. Consider this: With the given opening hand, if opener rebids 3S to show the good suit and/ or extra values, what is responder to do with an opening hand and a decent 6-card heart suit? 4Hts?-have you agreed on the meaning of 4Hts in this sequence. If opener rebids 2S, responder has room to rebid the hearts if warranted without cramping the bidding. A raise to 4 by opener might then show a minimum with 2 (maybe 3 hearts) while a bid of 4m might now show at least 2-card heart support and extra value.

One may or may not agree with my reasoning. But I suspect that most would agree with my premise that opener should at least consider responder's potential rebid problems when deciding on his/ her own initial rebid. Rules like 6-4-6 or always make this specific rebid, whatever that might be, are guidelines and not aq substitute for reasoning and trying to facilitate communication: sometimes one needs to plan in advance.

Tx
DHL (prev. Double !)
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#7 User is offline   bucky 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 15:20

What is a rule of 6-4-6?
 
 
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#8 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 16:55

View Postajain456, on 2010-October-24, 07:31, said:


Playing 2/1 system
What is my rebid?
I opened 1.
My partner responds 2
Is my rebid 2 or 3?
Thanks.




2s easy.....the whole point of playing 2/1 is too conserve space.
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#9 User is offline   ajain456 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 17:48

View Postajain456, on 2010-October-24, 07:31, said:


Playing 2/1 system
What is my rebid?
I opened 1.
My partner responds 2
Is my rebid 2 or 3?
Thanks.


I bid 2 and now My partner bids 4.
Do I have to bid further to proceed to slam?
I did not try for slam.
Am I at fault for not trying slam?
What is the bidding sequence to get to slam in 2/1 method?
Thanks.


Where the opponent at the other table bids grand slam on precision method and made it.
We lost by one imp.

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#10 User is offline   Venom 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 17:53

Some people ( I believe that Marty Bergen is one proponent) recommend bidding a hand holding both a 6-card and a 4-card suit by first bidding the 6-card suit, next bidding the 4-card suit, and then rebidding the 6-card suit regardless of had strength. Others (Frank Stewart being one proponent) recommend rebidding the 6-card suit first and then bidding the 4-card suit if necessary when holding a minimum opening hand, and initially rebidding the 4-card suit followed by rebidding the 6-card suit only when holding additional values.

DHL/ Don
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#11 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 17:58

The problem lies in partner's 4 call over 2, which shows a bare minimum hand. Partner may not have the best possible hand, but it's certainly more than the dead minimum of xx AJxxx Qxx AQx or something similar. I believe your partner's hand is a 2N or 3 call depending on your style. In my style, I would bid 3, then South is off to the races.

I cannot blame you for passing 4, as this shows a hand with very little slam interest, opposite even some total maximums.

EDIT: As for the Grand reached in the other room... 7NT is a horrible spot compared to 7, in fact, as a precision pair, they should be embarrassed :P

I don't know if I would find 7 after my auction (1S-2H-2S-3S-4N-5H-5N-6D), now S can ask about the K with 6, and that will get us there. South will of course have to assume 3-3 or 4-2, in order to establish a pitch. However, if South lacks an imagination and bids 6, that will be the final contract.
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#12 User is offline   Venom 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 18:00

2 followed by 4 is played by many as being a "shape raise" showing good hearts and spades and no outside controls. Your partner might have been more successful had he/ she rebid (depending on agreement) 2 or 3 NT for responder's first rebid in order to indicate a balanced hand. Spade support, if possessed, could be shown later.

DHL

n.b.: the concept of "fast arrival" is a controversial issue. I recommend that fast arrival be applicable only after partner has clearly limited the strength of his/ her hand.
Conventional Wisdom is an Oxymoron.
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#13 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 18:04

again the whole point of 2/1 is too conserve space except for afew limited type hands....here partner can just bid 3s(assuming you play 2s shows 6)....slam try over 2s....no problem yet......
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#14 User is offline   bucky 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 18:12

4 is a terrible bid. Maybe your partner forgot your agreement of playing 2/1 system.

7NT is not a good contract either, certainly much worse than 7. Honestly, I am content in getting to a small slam. Simple sequences like 1 2 2 3NT 6/6NT would work.
 
 
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#15 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 21:18

This is a 3S bid. Show that you have an excellent suit; bidding is too hard otherwise.

4S by partner shows a min or even slightly better than min, given that you could only bid 2S first up. Incidentally, I and many others, play that the 2S bid could be only a 5 card suit with a weakish hand.

Notice how much easier you make life for your partner with an immediate 3S bid. Now the slam is very easy to find. I would blame both of you equally.
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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#16 User is online   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 23:59

View Postajain456, on 2010-October-26, 17:48, said:

I bid 2 and now My partner bids 4.
Do I have to bid further to proceed to slam?
I did not try for slam.
Am I at fault for not trying slam?
What is the bidding sequence to get to slam in 2/1 method?
Thanks.


Where the opponent at the other table bids grand slam on precision method and made it.
We lost by one imp.



Did 2S promise a 6 carder?

The answer is - matter of partnership agreement, just because you happen to
have a one, does not mean, that you will always, if you open 1S and rebid 2S,
assuming you need add. values for introducing a new suit on the 3 level, than
2S may be based on a hand with min. opening values and a 5431 hand pattern..

So 4S is just a bid, which reveals, that you have a disagrement about the meaning
of 2S, and before you start to think how to reach slam, try to discuss with partner,
what 2S showes / implies and what not.

The actual hand pair is a poster child for my earlier argument, both have something
to spare, but not much, and if you overload the 2S response you will have trouble
finding out, that both side have add. values.

But I am just repeating myself - before you start to discuss a slam auction, discuss
the meaning of 2S with your partner.


With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#17 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2010-October-27, 00:45

1S - 2H
2S - 2N
3S - 4C
4D - 4H
5C - 5N
7S
...looks to be quite a nice auction. Of course South could also just RKCB.
(-: Zel :-)
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#18 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2010-October-27, 01:16

View PostZelandakh, on 2010-October-27, 00:45, said:

1S - 2H
2S - 2N
3S - 4C
4D - 4H
5C - 5N
7S
...looks to be quite a nice auction. Of course South could also just RKCB.


Would south not bid the same way with:

KQJxxxx
xx
Ax
Kx

5NT usually says "bid 7 with 2 of the top 3 hons".
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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#19 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2010-October-27, 01:30

1s=2h
2s(6)=3s(slam try)
4c=4d
4nt=5h
6c(kc, grand try, tends to deny kh)=7s?

I understand 6s
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#20 User is online   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2010-October-27, 02:20

View Postthe hog, on 2010-October-27, 01:16, said:

Would south not bid the same way with:

KQJxxxx
xx
Ax
Kx

5NT usually says "bid 7 with 2 of the top 3 hons".


Agree, and maybe South would also bid the same with

KQxxxx
xx
Ax
Kxx

and now facing 10x in spade, one may or may not want
to be in 6S.

It is certainly possible to interprets the proposed
auction differently, but one possible interpretion is,
that South showed nothing more than an opening bid with
6 spades and a diamond control, up to 4D, ... sure 4H
in the given auction meant as Last Train may safe the
day, but was it intended as Last Train?

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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