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Where is wrong?

#1 User is offline   cnszsun 

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Posted 2010-October-14, 07:38

1H-2C
2H-2S
2NT-4NT
6NT

Michael Sun

#2 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-October-14, 07:56

N should rebid 3H instead of eating up all that space with the quantitative 4N.

S shouldn't accept, remember partner shouldn't have much help in hearts. But of course 4N isn't exactly a good contract either. I would not call it a contract at all actually.
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#3 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2010-October-14, 07:56

Depends a lot on the meaning of 2, but without alerts I'd definitely say 2 is wrong. You can just respond 1. Bidding like this suggests 5+ and 4.
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#4 User is offline   billw55 

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Posted 2010-October-14, 08:23

Agree, 1 is much better. Why go to this trouble to introduce such a crappy club suit?

How about

1H-1S
2H-3D
3S-4H

With all working cards and a pushy sequence from partner, south can try keycard now and reach 6H.
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#5 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-October-14, 08:50

disagree, I really like 2. it establishes a GF immediately so we don't need to look for forcing bids later.
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#6 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-October-14, 09:14

if you wanna start with 2 you've got to rebid 2NT, then when partner bids 3 you can cuebid.

starting with 1 might get you stablishing a fake spade fit before using blackwood, wich is not a bad thing since K is a keycard anyway and KQ are already allocated. But how to find the control I have no idea.
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#7 User is offline   cphastrup 

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Posted 2010-October-14, 09:23

gwnn, on Oct 14 2010, 03:50 PM, said:

disagree, I really like 2. it establishes a GF immediately so we don't need to look for forcing bids later.

Don't need forcing bids later: 1 - 1 - 2 - 6 :)

But... if you want forcing bids they're not hard to find. After 1 - 1 - 2, then 3, 3, 4 NT and 4(available if you cuebid 2nd round controls) are forcing.

Bidding 2 on that may have established a GF, but it's also established a mess.

By bidding 1 you get more room for exploring strain and level. If partner rebids 1NT, it's more likely you belong in NT (and you can still force by using XY-NT or the like...) If partner rebids 2, you've found a fit at the 2-level.

And another bonus: You don't need to lie about / length and strength like you do when bidding 2 and rebidding ...

In my partnership it might have gone like the first sequence of my post - not the craziest of punts. An alternative: 1 - 1 - 2 - 4 (denies -control) - 4 - 4 - 4NT etc.
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#8 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2010-October-14, 12:29

Free, on Oct 14 2010, 08:56 AM, said:

Depends a lot on the meaning of 2, but without alerts I'd definitely say 2 is wrong.  You can just respond 1.  Bidding like this suggests 5+ and 4.

The other positives for 1;
a.) partner gets a better valuation on the K if he has it and tends to devalue a singleton as probable wastage

b.) if 2 over 2 is ambiguous it is less so over 1
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#9 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-October-14, 13:00

cphastrup, on Oct 14 2010, 03:23 PM, said:

gwnn, on Oct 14 2010, 03:50 PM, said:

disagree, I really like 2. it establishes a GF immediately so we don't need to look for forcing bids later.

Don't need forcing bids later: 1 - 1 - 2 - 6 ;)

But... if you want forcing bids they're not hard to find. After 1 - 1 - 2, then 3, 3, 4 NT and 4(available if you cuebid 2nd round controls) are forcing.

Bidding 2 on that may have established a GF, but it's also established a mess.

By bidding 1 you get more room for exploring strain and level. If partner rebids 1NT, it's more likely you belong in NT (and you can still force by using XY-NT or the like...) If partner rebids 2, you've found a fit at the 2-level.

And another bonus: You don't need to lie about / length and strength like you do when bidding 2 and rebidding ...

In my partnership it might have gone like the first sequence of my post - not the craziest of punts. An alternative: 1 - 1 - 2 - 4 (denies -control) - 4 - 4 - 4NT etc.

Both approaches have nice advantages and nice disadvantages. I wasn't looking to change anyone's mind, I just mentioned one of the nice advantages of the approach preferred by me. I guess if I say that I am not alone in the forums who play it this way I sound elitist or something like that. This issue is complicated and I am not interested in changing anyone's mind.
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#10 User is offline   ONEferBRID 

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Posted 2010-October-14, 13:09

cnszsun, on Oct 14 2010, 08:38 AM, said:

1H-2C
2H-2S
2NT-4NT
6NT

What is with the 2S rebid ?
I'm assuing 2C! was a 2/1 GF ( as putrid of a suit that it is ).
Opener has denied 4s with the 2H rebid.. AND has shown 6+h ( with only 5 cards, Opener would have had a 3C or 3D or 2NT rebid -- even if one of the unbid suits were unstopped [ as Phillip Alder would say: " that's what partners are for " ] ).

1H - 2C!
2H - 3H ( now you have agreed trumps at a low level and no worry about a passout)
3S - 4D ( going past 3NT w/cue, yet denying a Cl Ctrl in his 2/1 suit; thus, have strength )
4NT - 5S ( 2 + hQ )
6H
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#11 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2010-October-14, 13:59

cnszsun, on Oct 14 2010, 08:38 AM, said:

1H-2C
2H-2S
2NT-4NT
6NT

2c is fine and makes the hand easy.


if 2h promises 6 (it does for me) then 3h now...if not then 2nt now...not 2s.

-------------


btw note 1s did not save any room ;)
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#12 User is offline   hanp 

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Posted 2010-October-14, 14:13

Agree with mike777, 2C is good, 2S is bad.
and the result can be plotted on a graph.
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#13 User is offline   straube 

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Posted 2010-October-14, 14:39

hanp, on Oct 14 2010, 03:13 PM, said:

Agree with mike777, 2C is good, 2S is bad.

I agree. Establish the GF first. Imo, one shouldn't respond 1S with a GF hand unless holding 5 spades. It's difficult to establish a GF after introducing a 4-cd spade suit, it's difficult coping with competition after doing so, and it gets really messy if opener decides to raise spades with 3.

I also think opener with a 4/6 hand should rebid 2S and then rebid hearts later. This means that 1H-2C, 2H-2S is 4S/5C.
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#14 User is offline   keylime 

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Posted 2010-October-14, 17:10

1 for me, and it's clear of mind. Allow pard to have 4-5-x-x or 4-6-x-x to support you, and now you can reeval your hand. I disagree with 2 to set the GF, because you know it's your hand already; the opps are likely to stay out. Additionally, if pard finds a jump bid, the KQ of trumps, is prime cards for a slam try.
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#15 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2010-October-14, 17:22

note how the hand can get a bit messy if you start:
1h=1s
2h=?
or
1h=1s
2s(can be 3)=?

you have not saved any space to explore for slam compared to 1h=2c=2h=3h(slam try)
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#16 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2010-October-15, 01:11

Free, on Oct 14 2010, 08:56 PM, said:

Depends a lot on the meaning of 2, but without alerts I'd definitely say 2 is wrong. You can just respond 1. Bidding like this suggests 5+ and 4.

Agree. I would certainly bid 1S and it is pretty obvious. There is a school of thought on this site that bids 2C "to establish the game force", (as if you couldn't do it buy other means), and there have been a number of posts on this. For me, the bidding shows 5C and 4S.
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#17 User is offline   Cascade 

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Posted 2010-October-15, 01:14

Steve Robinson said in the vugraph of the Rosenblum final yesterday that responder should not bid 1 over 1 with four spades in a balanced GF. So it appears this view is not limited to those on the forum.
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#18 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2010-October-15, 01:42

I play 2 as a GF relay as well, and opener will immediately show if he has 4 or not. Then we can relay out the entire hand, which gives us an easier auction and better judgement from the balanced responder.

HOWEVER, OP didn't say 2 was GF nor artificial or possibly short... :angry:
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#19 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2010-October-15, 01:53

If you play 2C as a relay, then that is a different story altogether.

Steve Robinson also opens 1S on
xxxxx
Ax
AKQJxx
void

According to his book, not to bid a 5 card major is to deny one.
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#20 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-October-15, 02:28

Poison the well :angry:
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