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Forcing pass or not?

#1 User is offline   flytoox 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 00:04

Here is another forcing pass or not question.
Scoring: IMP


Bidding goes as follows:

W N E S
3D 3H 5D ?

Is pass forcing here?

IF yes, what do you do?

IF not, what do do?
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#2 User is offline   MarkDean 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 00:18

It certainly would not be forcing to me. I would be surprised if it were forcing for many people. I would bid 5.
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#3 User is offline   cherdanno 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 00:18

Pass is not forcing.
I bid 5 if pass is not forcing. I bid 5 if pass is forcing.
"Are you saying that LTC merits a more respectful dismissal?"
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#4 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 00:32

obviously, IMO, I would like pass to be forcing with this hand, so I could pass and pull, but that isn't our agreement; so, 5H.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#5 User is offline   jukmoi 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 00:43

A forcing pass here could be forcing to -1100 or more (if we held a different hand). Expecially if East knows that our pass is forcing. Ayway 5 seems kind of obvious - no way to investigate slam possibilities.

If pass were forcing I would pass and then pull, a slam invitation.
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#6 User is offline   mohitz 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 00:43

Pass is not forcing but if East was a passed hand i think most people will play pass as forcing.

Will bid 5. Partner will most likely know to raise when slam is on.
All your ace are belong to us!
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#7 User is offline   MFA 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 01:04

Some here play pass as forcing in these sequences but not me. I'm minimalistic about forcing passes.

5 if pass is not forcing.
5 if pass is forcing. We are not good enough for pass then 5 imo. We will likely hit partner with very strong hearts and shortage in diamonds. He will like that, but since he needs considerably more for slam, we should not encourage him too much. He could even have as much as Axxx, AKQJxx, -, Axx (too strong for 3) and slam is still virtually noplay.
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#8 User is offline   wank 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 02:07

playing pass as forcing would be ridiculous.

making a forcing pass if one were available would be equally ridiculous.

bidding 5H over 5D doesn't show a bad hand. wanting to make a slam try is druggy.
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#9 User is offline   jukmoi 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 02:52

MFA, on May 14 2010, 02:04 AM, said:

Some here play pass as forcing in these sequences but not me. I'm minimalistic about forcing passes.

5 if pass is not forcing.
5 if pass is forcing. We are not good enough for pass then 5 imo. We will likely hit partner with very strong hearts and shortage in diamonds. He will like that, but since he needs considerably more for slam, we should not encourage him too much. He could even have as much as Axxx, AKQJxx, -, Axx (too strong for 3) and slam is still virtually noplay.

And he could hold as little as AQx Axxxxx x Axx and slam is pretty good.
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#10 User is offline   hanp 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 04:15

5H, pass is NF for me.
and the result can be plotted on a graph.
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#11 User is offline   MFA 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 04:17

jukmoi, on May 14 2010, 10:52 AM, said:

MFA, on May 14 2010, 02:04 AM, said:

Some here play pass as forcing in these sequences but not me. I'm minimalistic about forcing passes.

5 if pass is not forcing.
5 if pass is forcing. We are not good enough for pass then 5 imo. We will likely hit partner with very strong hearts and shortage in diamonds. He will like that, but since he needs considerably more for slam, we should not encourage him too much. He could even have as much as Axxx, AKQJxx, -, Axx (too strong for 3) and slam is still virtually noplay.

And he could hold as little as AQx Axxxxx x Axx and slam is pretty good.

Yes, if just KQJ is 1-1, then ... :P

Well, I assume you mean AJxxxx. A 15-count with three aces doesn't qualify for an "as-little-as-statement", I think. ;)
And an example where we are missing exactly the two cards KQ, so that we can hope for a 1-1 split, is not such a realistic one, imo (ok my example was perhaps not that either).

Edit. Forgot to mention that opposite your (supposed) example hand slam is only marginal, since we need trumps to come in. We can't use spades 3-3 to anything.
Michael Askgaard
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#12 User is offline   OleBerg 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 04:21

My favourite agreement would be:

Non-forcing against some opponents, forcing against others.

My partner is not into such things, so we play it non-forcing.

(Such matters would become even more delicate, if you try to distinguish betweem the raiser being a passed hand and not.)


Anyway, 5 is my bid. If I had the option of a pass-pull, I wouldn't use it.
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#13 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 07:35

Partner didn't turn FP on in our partnership when he could have.
I double as forward values but 2-losers in their suit.
5H implies 0-1xD especially to clarify slam decisions.
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#14 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 08:09

mohitz, on May 14 2010, 01:43 AM, said:

Pass is not forcing but if East was a passed hand i think most people will play pass as forcing.

Will bid 5. Partner will most likely know to raise when slam is on.

This sums it up nicely.
Hi y'all!

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#15 User is offline   gszeszycki 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 14:28

this is why preempts are used this is sheer guesswork. pass is not forcing p is under the gun when they bid 3h (if p had bid 4h we having a different conversation)
there is no gurantee we can make 5h OR set 5d thus it is PRUDENT to try and avoid getting slaughtered since i am willing to x 6d I do not worry too much about
what happens after I bid 5h (in other words if 5h x i will NOT xx)
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#16 User is offline   peachy 

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Posted 2010-May-14, 17:29

Not FP. I bid 5H.
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