meaning of this redouble?
#1
Posted 2010-March-22, 16:34
(1♦)-p-(p)-dbl;
(p)-1♠-(dbl [1]) - rdbl[2]
2♣-[3]?
[1] takeout, minor oriented.
[2] ??? What hand types should this show?
[3] You are 4=4=2=3 ~6 hcp, do you bid 2♥ here or pass? What's the worst hand you'd bid with?
#2
Posted 2010-March-22, 16:58
I'd bid 2♥ with the hand you describe, and perhaps a point less.
#3
Posted 2010-March-22, 17:28
gnasher, on Mar 22 2010, 04:58 PM, said:
I'd bid 2♥ with the hand you describe, and perhaps a point less.
Yep, I read this auction to mean YOU chose 1S because you were willing to take another bid with further competition. Not sure with a 6 count (3 with subtract-a-king) I would have chosen to do so, but that was apparently your plan.
So take another bid in competition. Partner has you covered (13 ish). 2H is just fine.
#4
Posted 2010-March-22, 17:42
Quote
?? My feeling is that it is routine to always bid 1♠ with this shape when not strong enough to cue bid, because you may be FORCED to take another bid, and 1♠ leaves you much better placed to show the 2nd suit later without driving a level higher. What if partner had cue-bid instead of redoubling? What if LHO had raised diamonds and partner doubled again? Wouldn't you feel better placed with a yarb having bid 1♠ not 1♥?
#5
Posted 2010-March-22, 17:47
Stephen Tu, on Mar 23 2010, 12:42 AM, said:
Me too.
#7
Posted 2010-March-22, 21:08
#8
Posted 2010-March-23, 08:17
#9
Posted 2010-March-23, 08:23
#10
Posted 2010-March-23, 09:30
#11
Posted 2010-March-23, 09:36
jdonn, on Mar 23 2010, 09:30 AM, said:
If the double were in direct seat, I would agree the subsequent redouble would be stronger than 13+ (15/16+), but short of "double and then cue". After the balancing double, 13+ (overbidding by 3) seems about right.
#12
Posted 2010-March-23, 11:58
#13
Posted 2010-March-23, 12:05
jdonn, on Mar 23 2010, 10:30 AM, said:
agreed....a good 15 or more for me...but the 3 card spade suit is 100%
#15
Posted 2010-March-23, 14:58
#17
Posted 2010-March-23, 15:17
#18
Posted 2010-March-23, 15:27
Fluffy, on Mar 23 2010, 01:47 PM, said:
Doesn't balanced 20 just balance with 2nt instead of double? What range is 2nt balancing over a minor? (I think it's around 18-20, +/- a point depending on agreements).
In real life partner had a 3334 19 and misbid IMO; she also thought that 1s + the free 2h promised a fifth spade which got us in further trouble.
#19
Posted 2010-March-23, 17:36
jdonn, on Mar 23 2010, 11:58 AM, said:
I think you meant "such a redouble", not "double".
Of the set of hands with 3-card support and doubt about trump which got a 1S response to its balancing double:
Pass would be the weakest
Redouble (as here) would be next.
Then comes a cue, etc.
That does not mean the redouble needs to be only used with hands with a high likelihood of game our way. It just seems to be the proper way of competing. Partner --who has subtracted the 3 points you get to overbid upon --could have as much as 10 HCP, and still might only be 4-4 in the majors if he has 4 hearts (prepared 1S).
#20
Posted 2010-March-23, 17:51
aguahombre, on Mar 23 2010, 06:36 PM, said:
I don't know how you reach your conclusion from this logic. If partner is 4-4 in the majors with a 10 count he won't pass if we pass, and we still don't have game with a balanced 13. So what did the redouble gain us? I guess what I don't understand is what you mean by "the proper way of competing." You feel better having shown 13+ rather than 7-14 or something when you reach the same contract?